Hello there, I have received an offer from Lloyds regarding a claim for PPI, but from the figure i do believe it is wrong. If anyone here could help and tell me if they are in fact right or alternatively give me a new calculation that is right, that would be great! First of all, in advance I appreciate all your responses (if there are any) and thanks for all your help.
First of all loan, there were various loans that were refinanced, i'm just going to post the details for one to make it easier.
Cash Advance- £1700.00
Repayment of existing debt- £2300.00
PPI- £869.44
Total Loan £4869.44
The loan agreement states that the monthly payment is £117.69 of which £21.01 is PPI. The interest rate on the agreement is 16.9%APR and 1.31% per month fixed. 59 installments of £117.69 and one final installment of the remaining amount.
The loan started on 19/10/1998 and 11 payments were made until the loan was again refinanced and an amount £4187.54 was paid into the loan account to clear/consolidate/close the account (this 4187.54 wasn't paid by me, it was lloyds doing the refinancing). Also, the new refinanced loan had in the column repayment of existing debit £4000, therefore I'm guessing the £187.54 extra was a ppi rebate?
Now here's what I find confusing. Above and on the loan agreement is written "repayment of existing debt £2300". Now this £2300 is from the last loan which started on 29/06/1998 and had an opening balance of £2808.32 (total ppi £508.32), the monthly payments were £70.40 (of which £12.74 was ppi) and only 3 payments were made until £2746.87 was credited to close the account and refinance into the loan i have in question. This loan had the same term, 60 months, but had an interest rate of 18.8%APR and 1.45% fixed monthly.
Although on the loan agreement it gives a breakdown of how much PPI will be paid monthly, the full amount is still front-loaded on the actual loan statement. And when the settlement figure is applied, no rebate of ppi is given or mentioned. Therefore technically, on the new loan, ppi is being paid twice. Am i right in saying this?
I would also just like to add that the interest was being applied to the loan account monthly, on the full amount including ppi.
First of all loan, there were various loans that were refinanced, i'm just going to post the details for one to make it easier.
Cash Advance- £1700.00
Repayment of existing debt- £2300.00
PPI- £869.44
Total Loan £4869.44
The loan agreement states that the monthly payment is £117.69 of which £21.01 is PPI. The interest rate on the agreement is 16.9%APR and 1.31% per month fixed. 59 installments of £117.69 and one final installment of the remaining amount.
The loan started on 19/10/1998 and 11 payments were made until the loan was again refinanced and an amount £4187.54 was paid into the loan account to clear/consolidate/close the account (this 4187.54 wasn't paid by me, it was lloyds doing the refinancing). Also, the new refinanced loan had in the column repayment of existing debit £4000, therefore I'm guessing the £187.54 extra was a ppi rebate?
Now here's what I find confusing. Above and on the loan agreement is written "repayment of existing debt £2300". Now this £2300 is from the last loan which started on 29/06/1998 and had an opening balance of £2808.32 (total ppi £508.32), the monthly payments were £70.40 (of which £12.74 was ppi) and only 3 payments were made until £2746.87 was credited to close the account and refinance into the loan i have in question. This loan had the same term, 60 months, but had an interest rate of 18.8%APR and 1.45% fixed monthly.
Although on the loan agreement it gives a breakdown of how much PPI will be paid monthly, the full amount is still front-loaded on the actual loan statement. And when the settlement figure is applied, no rebate of ppi is given or mentioned. Therefore technically, on the new loan, ppi is being paid twice. Am i right in saying this?
I would also just like to add that the interest was being applied to the loan account monthly, on the full amount including ppi.
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