Hi,
I understand the concept of a debt being statute barred but i'm not sure if this changes should the original lender sell on the debt either before the 6 year period or just after the 6 years. In practice how can the new owner enforce payment of the debt once it has become statute barred ? Many Thanks
I understand the concept of a debt being statute barred but i'm not sure if this changes should the original lender sell on the debt either before the 6 year period or just after the 6 years. In practice how can the new owner enforce payment of the debt once it has become statute barred ? Many Thanks
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