Hi, this is my first time posting.
The other day i checked my credit report and i have come accross a CCJ that was issued late in 2017. I tracked it down to Moriarty Law / MMF and gave them a call.
It appears that this was issued when i temporarily moved out to live with family as my relationship with my ex at the time was toxic and had broken down. A big part of the breakdown was to do with money handling etc.
I moved back into my home late 2018, after she had left.
The day after finding out about the CCJ last week, I spoke with Moriarty Law and discussed my situation at the time of claim. Also the contact email they had registered for me was not mine it was my ex partners.
i searched online and found posts about consent orders.
I sent them a consent order last week and they have responded with the following.
"Our client will accept the sum of £506.99 in full and final settlement.
In this regard we would request that any proposed Consent Order that Sets Aside the Judgment will include a term referencing paying of the above settlement."
The wording that I had used in the consent order is below.
UPON the application of the Defendant to set aside a default judgment dated 30/10/2017.
AND UPON the Claimant and the Defendant having reached a settlement by consent.
BY CONSENT IT IS ORDERED THAT:-
1. The default judgment entered on 30/10/2017 be set aside [Claim Ref].
2. The Claim is dismissed.
3. There be no order as to costs.
Can anyone help with this. Is there anything wrong with my wording and should I add their line into the order.
Thanks in advance for any advice.
The other day i checked my credit report and i have come accross a CCJ that was issued late in 2017. I tracked it down to Moriarty Law / MMF and gave them a call.
It appears that this was issued when i temporarily moved out to live with family as my relationship with my ex at the time was toxic and had broken down. A big part of the breakdown was to do with money handling etc.
I moved back into my home late 2018, after she had left.
The day after finding out about the CCJ last week, I spoke with Moriarty Law and discussed my situation at the time of claim. Also the contact email they had registered for me was not mine it was my ex partners.
i searched online and found posts about consent orders.
I sent them a consent order last week and they have responded with the following.
"Our client will accept the sum of £506.99 in full and final settlement.
In this regard we would request that any proposed Consent Order that Sets Aside the Judgment will include a term referencing paying of the above settlement."
The wording that I had used in the consent order is below.
UPON the application of the Defendant to set aside a default judgment dated 30/10/2017.
AND UPON the Claimant and the Defendant having reached a settlement by consent.
BY CONSENT IT IS ORDERED THAT:-
1. The default judgment entered on 30/10/2017 be set aside [Claim Ref].
2. The Claim is dismissed.
3. There be no order as to costs.
Can anyone help with this. Is there anything wrong with my wording and should I add their line into the order.
Thanks in advance for any advice.
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