Hi - Following a property repossession the lender attempted to sell said property and apparently the lender is unable to do so, as there is a title issue. It appears the solicitor completing the original mortgage transaction (I assume Lender's solicitor as it was a remortgage at the time) failed to register a charge against the property at Land Registry on behalf of the lender.
Lender has requested I rectify said issue by completing form ID1 and completing a mortgage deed doc, and has threatended court action if I do not comply.
I'm unsure about what form such Court action may take (and likelihood of success for Lender), given I did not cause said issue? I'm wondering why the lender doesn't pursue the solicitor?
Lender has requested I rectify said issue by completing form ID1 and completing a mortgage deed doc, and has threatended court action if I do not comply.
I'm unsure about what form such Court action may take (and likelihood of success for Lender), given I did not cause said issue? I'm wondering why the lender doesn't pursue the solicitor?
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