I'm new to this forum and not quite sure how to make a post so please accept my apologies if I have made an incorrect post.
I'm following the thread of Voluntary Termination of a Hire Purchase or Conditional loan under the CCA 1974 and the post dated 12 January 2014 from Goaphil.
I have a similar situation where I have recently exercised my VT rights and handed back my vehicle. However, there was approximately 16,000 excess miles on the vehicle for which the finance company have sent me a demand for payment.
My agreement does contain an annual mileage and excess mileage charge provision but I am unsure whether those provisions are operative in the case of VT. I have read on another forum of one person who successfully challenged the excess mileage charges with his finance company but it seemed as though his finance company simply buckled on the day or he "got luck" since there was no contractual basis stated on which he won his argument, other than the fact that the "Act" cannot be superseded by the finance companies terms and conditions.
I was wondering whether the people on this forum were aware of any precedent or contractual basis for mounting a good argument.
Any advice would be greatly appreciated, many thanks.
Jon
I'm following the thread of Voluntary Termination of a Hire Purchase or Conditional loan under the CCA 1974 and the post dated 12 January 2014 from Goaphil.
I have a similar situation where I have recently exercised my VT rights and handed back my vehicle. However, there was approximately 16,000 excess miles on the vehicle for which the finance company have sent me a demand for payment.
My agreement does contain an annual mileage and excess mileage charge provision but I am unsure whether those provisions are operative in the case of VT. I have read on another forum of one person who successfully challenged the excess mileage charges with his finance company but it seemed as though his finance company simply buckled on the day or he "got luck" since there was no contractual basis stated on which he won his argument, other than the fact that the "Act" cannot be superseded by the finance companies terms and conditions.
I was wondering whether the people on this forum were aware of any precedent or contractual basis for mounting a good argument.
Any advice would be greatly appreciated, many thanks.
Jon
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