My late wife took out a mortgage with Platform Holdings on an interest only basis. The property was also solely in the name of my late wife, who died in January 2011. I was/am the executor. Sometime before that, the mortgage was taken over by J P Morgan.
At the time of my wife's death I contacted J P Morgan to transfer the mortgage into my name but they refused as ‘they were no longer lending and considered it as new business’. This was despite (as a precaution) having obtained a letter from Platform Holdings stated that in the event of my wife;'s death the mortgage COULD be transferred to my name).
The mortgage was for £68,000 against property valued iro £80,000. In March 2016 I paid J P Morgan £28,000 in reduction of the mortgage and intended to repay the remainder by selling a property that I had in France. J P Morgan agreed to give it 12 months to do this (ie until March 2017).
The mortgage was subsequently sold to Rooftop Mortgages. In the meantime due to the stagnant property market in France the property did not sell, so I chose to reverse my strategy and become resident in France and sell the mortgaged property.
I spoke to Rooftop Mortgages around the end of August this year, explained the situation, that the property was vacant and was now for sale with a local agent. I was very surprised therefore to receive a letter by email (as I am abroad) from their solicitors again asking for repayment proposals or the property may be repossessed and sold. I have naturally responded to this letter, stating that I am sure anyone will agree that a sensible mechanism is in place for complete repayment of the mortgage and it just needs a little patience – no need to threaten any ‘heavy handed actions’.
My questions therefore are:
1) Can they repossess the property and sell at below market valuation just to repay their mortgage, even if the property is already for sale? Would they not have a'duty of care' to obtain a market valuation price?
2) Should they (or J P Morgan) have offered alternatives other than simply demand repayment?
3) As I am resident abroad, if they did continue the ‘heavy handed’ approach and went to court to seek a repossession order, am I correct in saying that a court cannot issue a CCJ in the Uk against a non resident?
I would add that all payments have been made without fail and on time and there are no arrears.
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At the time of my wife's death I contacted J P Morgan to transfer the mortgage into my name but they refused as ‘they were no longer lending and considered it as new business’. This was despite (as a precaution) having obtained a letter from Platform Holdings stated that in the event of my wife;'s death the mortgage COULD be transferred to my name).
The mortgage was for £68,000 against property valued iro £80,000. In March 2016 I paid J P Morgan £28,000 in reduction of the mortgage and intended to repay the remainder by selling a property that I had in France. J P Morgan agreed to give it 12 months to do this (ie until March 2017).
The mortgage was subsequently sold to Rooftop Mortgages. In the meantime due to the stagnant property market in France the property did not sell, so I chose to reverse my strategy and become resident in France and sell the mortgaged property.
I spoke to Rooftop Mortgages around the end of August this year, explained the situation, that the property was vacant and was now for sale with a local agent. I was very surprised therefore to receive a letter by email (as I am abroad) from their solicitors again asking for repayment proposals or the property may be repossessed and sold. I have naturally responded to this letter, stating that I am sure anyone will agree that a sensible mechanism is in place for complete repayment of the mortgage and it just needs a little patience – no need to threaten any ‘heavy handed actions’.
My questions therefore are:
1) Can they repossess the property and sell at below market valuation just to repay their mortgage, even if the property is already for sale? Would they not have a'duty of care' to obtain a market valuation price?
2) Should they (or J P Morgan) have offered alternatives other than simply demand repayment?
3) As I am resident abroad, if they did continue the ‘heavy handed’ approach and went to court to seek a repossession order, am I correct in saying that a court cannot issue a CCJ in the Uk against a non resident?
I would add that all payments have been made without fail and on time and there are no arrears.
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