A married couple own a house in both their names, but only the husband pays the mortgage. They put the house up for sale - it is still up for sale - wanting to downsize.
The wife leaves the husband for another man, there is no definitive proof of this except hearsay, but she is definitely with another man now. However, the husband carries on paying the mortgage, and the rest of the household bills, and the wife has moved in with the other man. She has let herself into her married home numerous times, with a key, but pays nothing towards it. Does the wife have to contribute, because it is likely she will expect half of the house when it does sell, and how would the husband go about making her do so? Divorce and separation have not been mentioned, and it's doubtful they will be either.
Many thanks
The wife leaves the husband for another man, there is no definitive proof of this except hearsay, but she is definitely with another man now. However, the husband carries on paying the mortgage, and the rest of the household bills, and the wife has moved in with the other man. She has let herself into her married home numerous times, with a key, but pays nothing towards it. Does the wife have to contribute, because it is likely she will expect half of the house when it does sell, and how would the husband go about making her do so? Divorce and separation have not been mentioned, and it's doubtful they will be either.
Many thanks
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