Hi there,
Myself & my ex-partner separated earlier this year. We House went up for sale in January, but didn't sell for quite some time (approx July). I moved out in March due to the relationship breaking down and needing to escape the toxic environment.
Ex-partner continued to live there, until now, has not made any effort to leave and in honesty I feel most likely delayed the sale. I do not have an excess of my own personal funds and the delay in receiving money from the house has caused me to delay moving forward, I moved into a rented property as I could not afford to buy. Thankfully the property has sold and all being well should complete by the end of the year.
Can I claim occupational rent for my half of the mortgage for the time that they have been living there? How do I go about that? From what I have found online, the amount in occupational rent that I would be owed far exceeds the amount they could argue I owe towards the mortgage payments.
For context, my ex is now saying I should not receive an equal share of the profit at the end as I have not contributed in full towards the mortgage (50% of mortgage per month). I have our child living with me for 80% of the time (despite me suggesting many alternatives as I believed that wasn't split in the best interests of our child), my rental payments alone are more than the mortgage payments, and I have been unable to work as much due to the childcare arrangements, which is not financially sustainable, while they earn 2 or 3x more than I do.
Thanks in advance,
K
Myself & my ex-partner separated earlier this year. We House went up for sale in January, but didn't sell for quite some time (approx July). I moved out in March due to the relationship breaking down and needing to escape the toxic environment.
Ex-partner continued to live there, until now, has not made any effort to leave and in honesty I feel most likely delayed the sale. I do not have an excess of my own personal funds and the delay in receiving money from the house has caused me to delay moving forward, I moved into a rented property as I could not afford to buy. Thankfully the property has sold and all being well should complete by the end of the year.
Can I claim occupational rent for my half of the mortgage for the time that they have been living there? How do I go about that? From what I have found online, the amount in occupational rent that I would be owed far exceeds the amount they could argue I owe towards the mortgage payments.
For context, my ex is now saying I should not receive an equal share of the profit at the end as I have not contributed in full towards the mortgage (50% of mortgage per month). I have our child living with me for 80% of the time (despite me suggesting many alternatives as I believed that wasn't split in the best interests of our child), my rental payments alone are more than the mortgage payments, and I have been unable to work as much due to the childcare arrangements, which is not financially sustainable, while they earn 2 or 3x more than I do.
Thanks in advance,
K
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