Re: Aiding contreventions
Although the same treatment is given to both disabled and non disabled tenants if the disabled person is worse off than his non disabled comparator in effect it is potentially indirect discrimination. Here's an example, an employer offers over-time to all employees but a disabled gentleman worker has no one to take him to work at that unsociable hour unlike the non disabled car drivers who can get there for the overtime. The disabled gentleman in consequence picks up less money than the other non disabled persons. Is this direct or indirect discrimination, and why?
Originally posted by Noah
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