Hello, I work for the NHS as a fulltime permanent employee since March '23.
Prior to this I worked on the NHS Bank service (A flexible zero-hours style register) in the same position for 2 years at fulltime hours.
In June this year I had to take extended sick leave. My employer is saying I am not entitled to the full 3 years’ service length benefits due to my Bank service contract stating:
This employment term ended in March '23 due to being made a permanent employee in the same post. The terms were replaced with standard NHS terms of employment which states:
The FSB is a department of the hospital and therefore and NHS employer.
I feel like 2 years of service meant nothing, are they legally correct to do this? I read it as the current terms should supersede any previous terms?
Any advice is much appreciated.
Prior to this I worked on the NHS Bank service (A flexible zero-hours style register) in the same position for 2 years at fulltime hours.
In June this year I had to take extended sick leave. My employer is saying I am not entitled to the full 3 years’ service length benefits due to my Bank service contract stating:
The fact that FSB offers you work, or offers you work more than once, shall not confer any legal rights on you and, in particular, should not be regarded as establishing an entitlement to regular work or conferring continuity of employment. Accordingly, your work for FSB does not constitute continuous employment for statutory purposes or for any other purpose. Therefore, you will not accrue any service-based statutory or contractual rights by virtue of being registered on the FSB Register.
This employment term ended in March '23 due to being made a permanent employee in the same post. The terms were replaced with standard NHS terms of employment which states:
12.1 An employee’s continuous previous service with any NHS employer counts as reckonable service in respect of NHS agreements on redundancy, maternity, sick pay and annual leave.
The FSB is a department of the hospital and therefore and NHS employer.
I feel like 2 years of service meant nothing, are they legally correct to do this? I read it as the current terms should supersede any previous terms?
Any advice is much appreciated.
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