I have posted about this case elsewhere but wanted information on some specific points. I hope you can help.
Today is the last day to submit the defence. I have been waiting for a response from the claimant but received none in the limited time available.
I finally got round to checking Experian and Equifax. The debt is not listed on either but the company has recently listed another small debt they have bought up.
I don't recall receiving any default notice about this. Can I confidently say no default has been issued in view of nothing on the credit files?
The debt was sold on twice before being sold to the claimant. The particulars of claim don't list the original creditor or any of the subsequent owners of the debt, just the branding of the card (Debenhams). The company gives the date it was assigned the debt, but not the assignor, who isn't the original creditor.
Is it necessary for a default notice to be issued by the company who owned the debt when the breach of the agreement occurred? Can the claimant issue a default now? Do they have the power to do that?
By the way I made two payments earlier this year to try to avoid court action. Thank you.
Today is the last day to submit the defence. I have been waiting for a response from the claimant but received none in the limited time available.
I finally got round to checking Experian and Equifax. The debt is not listed on either but the company has recently listed another small debt they have bought up.
I don't recall receiving any default notice about this. Can I confidently say no default has been issued in view of nothing on the credit files?
The debt was sold on twice before being sold to the claimant. The particulars of claim don't list the original creditor or any of the subsequent owners of the debt, just the branding of the card (Debenhams). The company gives the date it was assigned the debt, but not the assignor, who isn't the original creditor.
Is it necessary for a default notice to be issued by the company who owned the debt when the breach of the agreement occurred? Can the claimant issue a default now? Do they have the power to do that?
By the way I made two payments earlier this year to try to avoid court action. Thank you.
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