Hi there,
Quick question about defaults..... I understand that default notices and registering defaults on credit files are separate things. But I'm not sure whether one requires the other or vice versa?
To explain what I mean, I have a really old payday loan in arrears with PDUK (showing as 'late payment' on my credit file) and I contacted them to see if my account was included in the FCA write off order. They said it wasn't. When I asked what they planned to do with the account, they said it would eventually be defaulted and they would then decide whether to take legal action or sell the account to a third party.
Now my understanding was that when an account goes into arrears, the lender has a reasonable time to default the account (up to 6 months?), but are they legally allowed to default the account say 2 years or potentially 6 years down the line?
If this were the case, then a lender could screw your credit file for up to 12 years instead of 6 which would not only be unfair but an abuse of the system, no?
Does anyone know the actual law surrounding this? I won't be impressed if I get a fresh default on my credit file 3 years after my battle with payday loans is almost over....
Thanks in advance
Quick question about defaults..... I understand that default notices and registering defaults on credit files are separate things. But I'm not sure whether one requires the other or vice versa?
To explain what I mean, I have a really old payday loan in arrears with PDUK (showing as 'late payment' on my credit file) and I contacted them to see if my account was included in the FCA write off order. They said it wasn't. When I asked what they planned to do with the account, they said it would eventually be defaulted and they would then decide whether to take legal action or sell the account to a third party.
Now my understanding was that when an account goes into arrears, the lender has a reasonable time to default the account (up to 6 months?), but are they legally allowed to default the account say 2 years or potentially 6 years down the line?
If this were the case, then a lender could screw your credit file for up to 12 years instead of 6 which would not only be unfair but an abuse of the system, no?
Does anyone know the actual law surrounding this? I won't be impressed if I get a fresh default on my credit file 3 years after my battle with payday loans is almost over....
Thanks in advance
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