Hi all, new here
Best of starting with a bit of history behind my issue. Basically I broke up with my partner in mid 2008 and a few months later I was made redundant meaning I fell behind with all my payments of various CC's/Overdrafts/Loans. By the time I was back in full time employment things were very much out of control so me being me, I decided to bury my head in the sand and 'go off the grid' so to speak. Fast forward to today and things are much better, I am finally confident to go on the electoral role, have savings and my bank seem to want to know me again and are offering credit cards etc (not making that mistake again!).
All my previous debts are now statute barred (I've not made a payment on any since 2008). One keeps cropping up though and this is a debt sold to Lowell (originally from HFC bank) for £300. The credit was given for a PC in curry's in January 2005. They have been sending letters to my mums address (don't know how they got that) for years now even though my mum send them various letters telling them I didn't live there!!. They have finally caught up with me at my current address I share with my GF. I would of just left them to send the standard cycle of letters but I get enough junk mail as it is. Checked everything out and felt confident to send the standard SB letter a few weeks ago. Their reply (knew they wouldn't drop it) was this:
"We confirm that your account remains legally enforceable by us and is not statute barred under the limitation act 1980 as suggested. This is because your debt did not become fully due and payable until HFC bank issued a default notice which you did not comply with. According to information provided by HFC bank the default date was 30/11/11 and therefore we consider that the debt is enforceable for 6 years after this date. Please be advised that we have placed your account on hold while we request a copy of statements from your original creditor"
I haven't checked my latest credit file just yet but i'm 100% certain no payments have been made (I can prove this from bank statements). I have a copy of my credit report from 2010 and it says the account was made 'Delinquent' in March 2009. The account must have finally been defaulted in November 2011 and sold to Lowell (have seen others on here with a similar date).
Haven't kept many letters from Lowell as thought the issue had gone away. Funnily enough I do still have the original credit agreement for this debt. I did write to HFC in January 2009 as I had PPI on this debt, they never replied. In my terms and conditions of the original credit agreement it says that they 'may' take action 21 days after a missed payment. Would this be the 'cause of action' ??? My credit report from this time also shows when the payments stopped so I have that as evidence.
So all in all;
My question is where do I go from here? Having all the evidence should I inform them of this or wait until they get (or make up) copies of statements? Also would the cause of action be first non payment +21 days as my T&C's state? Surely it cannot be the date Lowell are quoting as HFC had 3 years to do this?? Also what credit agency should I check my report with? Heard Noddle is free?
Many Thanks in advance and sorry for the long post!!! Lowell just get my goat :tinysmile_grin_t:
Best of starting with a bit of history behind my issue. Basically I broke up with my partner in mid 2008 and a few months later I was made redundant meaning I fell behind with all my payments of various CC's/Overdrafts/Loans. By the time I was back in full time employment things were very much out of control so me being me, I decided to bury my head in the sand and 'go off the grid' so to speak. Fast forward to today and things are much better, I am finally confident to go on the electoral role, have savings and my bank seem to want to know me again and are offering credit cards etc (not making that mistake again!).
All my previous debts are now statute barred (I've not made a payment on any since 2008). One keeps cropping up though and this is a debt sold to Lowell (originally from HFC bank) for £300. The credit was given for a PC in curry's in January 2005. They have been sending letters to my mums address (don't know how they got that) for years now even though my mum send them various letters telling them I didn't live there!!. They have finally caught up with me at my current address I share with my GF. I would of just left them to send the standard cycle of letters but I get enough junk mail as it is. Checked everything out and felt confident to send the standard SB letter a few weeks ago. Their reply (knew they wouldn't drop it) was this:
"We confirm that your account remains legally enforceable by us and is not statute barred under the limitation act 1980 as suggested. This is because your debt did not become fully due and payable until HFC bank issued a default notice which you did not comply with. According to information provided by HFC bank the default date was 30/11/11 and therefore we consider that the debt is enforceable for 6 years after this date. Please be advised that we have placed your account on hold while we request a copy of statements from your original creditor"
I haven't checked my latest credit file just yet but i'm 100% certain no payments have been made (I can prove this from bank statements). I have a copy of my credit report from 2010 and it says the account was made 'Delinquent' in March 2009. The account must have finally been defaulted in November 2011 and sold to Lowell (have seen others on here with a similar date).
Haven't kept many letters from Lowell as thought the issue had gone away. Funnily enough I do still have the original credit agreement for this debt. I did write to HFC in January 2009 as I had PPI on this debt, they never replied. In my terms and conditions of the original credit agreement it says that they 'may' take action 21 days after a missed payment. Would this be the 'cause of action' ??? My credit report from this time also shows when the payments stopped so I have that as evidence.
So all in all;
- Credit agreement started in Jan 2005
- Payments stopped in July 2008, HFC 'could' of taken action in August 2009
- Account made 'delinquent' in March 2009 and is 6 years clear.
- Either Lowell or HFC added the default in November 2011
- No payments made since July 2008, this can be proved from bank statements.
- I've made no contact about the debt since the standard SB letter.
- I never received a default notice in 2011 from HFC or Lowell.
- If Lowell was sure this wasn't SB why are they asking for statements from the creditor?
My question is where do I go from here? Having all the evidence should I inform them of this or wait until they get (or make up) copies of statements? Also would the cause of action be first non payment +21 days as my T&C's state? Surely it cannot be the date Lowell are quoting as HFC had 3 years to do this?? Also what credit agency should I check my report with? Heard Noddle is free?
Many Thanks in advance and sorry for the long post!!! Lowell just get my goat :tinysmile_grin_t:
Comment