Hi there,
I had a Barclaycard I thought had been defaulted with the CRAs back in 2009 due to a Notice of Default I had received.
Barclaycard actually added late payment markers '6' for over two years before closing the account and selling on to Cabot.
I have spoken with Barclaycard and I think they are going to agree to a retrospective default. However, I am arguing this should have been added in May/June 09 when they first sent a Default notice and applied default sums to the account. They are saying however, Oct 09 is when their records showed the account was regarded as a defaulted account and when they would potentially add a retrospective default. They also say that was the date they sent the Default notice. However, I have the letters Notices of Default for both May 09 and Oct 09 and they are EXACTLY the same.
Obviously if they do this and it is May they agree to then the account would be 6 years from default and should be removed entirely from my file, correct?
But what would then happen to the Cabot entry? It is the same debt but they are currently reporting an arrangement to pay (albeit they haven't shown the diminishing balance of those payments since they took on the account in 2011). I have already written to both Barclaycard and Cabot and the CRAs complaining and requesting they are both removed. Cabot are displaying an inflated balance due too and I am pretty much sure the account would be clear based on the original debt sum but Barclaycard must have added multiple charges and interest...plus PPI.
Anyway what I need to know is how do I go about it if Barclaycard agree to the retrospective default to make sure Cabot remove the account too? Or would I need to take it up with the CRAs?
Thanks
I had a Barclaycard I thought had been defaulted with the CRAs back in 2009 due to a Notice of Default I had received.
Barclaycard actually added late payment markers '6' for over two years before closing the account and selling on to Cabot.
I have spoken with Barclaycard and I think they are going to agree to a retrospective default. However, I am arguing this should have been added in May/June 09 when they first sent a Default notice and applied default sums to the account. They are saying however, Oct 09 is when their records showed the account was regarded as a defaulted account and when they would potentially add a retrospective default. They also say that was the date they sent the Default notice. However, I have the letters Notices of Default for both May 09 and Oct 09 and they are EXACTLY the same.
Obviously if they do this and it is May they agree to then the account would be 6 years from default and should be removed entirely from my file, correct?
But what would then happen to the Cabot entry? It is the same debt but they are currently reporting an arrangement to pay (albeit they haven't shown the diminishing balance of those payments since they took on the account in 2011). I have already written to both Barclaycard and Cabot and the CRAs complaining and requesting they are both removed. Cabot are displaying an inflated balance due too and I am pretty much sure the account would be clear based on the original debt sum but Barclaycard must have added multiple charges and interest...plus PPI.
Anyway what I need to know is how do I go about it if Barclaycard agree to the retrospective default to make sure Cabot remove the account too? Or would I need to take it up with the CRAs?
Thanks
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