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Hi i recently made a post about a problem i was having with lowell debt recovery. I had a credit card barclaycard, moved abroad, never paid it, came back and they have started chasing the debt, i sent a letter stating it was statue barred, to which they sent statements they had acquired from barclays with "payments" made to the account. I called barclays and questioned these payments, they said they were made in error and returned, they 2 payments were in 2010 and both for £20, which were both in error and returned. Lowell say that because payment has been made, which it clearly hasn't they are allowed to enforce the debt. The card was taken out in 2006.
Is it correct that any money borrowed from a bank/lender is also the responsability of the lender to repay ie 50/50 me/them? Can anyone help please?? I just want to get this sorted as they are threatening with a ccj, i have already had a default from it.
Is it correct that any money borrowed from a bank/lender is also the responsability of the lender to repay ie 50/50 me/them? Can anyone help please?? I just want to get this sorted as they are threatening with a ccj, i have already had a default from it.
