We took out our loan for £53300 in Nov 2004. In Feb 2006 we decided that we had had enough and sold our property. Firstplus used rule 78 to calculate the settlement figure and as a result we had a deficit of £5700 although by that time we had paid approximately £6190 on the loan.
I now understand that according to OFT this calculation may have been unfair and that they should have used an actuarial method. Using Rule 78 on an unregulated loan is contrary to section 140 of the CCA "unfair credit relationship".
Do you think I should challenge Firstplus on this isse and get them to re-calculate the settlement figure. We have paid over £3600 at £70 per month since Feb 2006 and still owe about £5400! We just to get rid of Firstplus and any advice will be welcome.
I now understand that according to OFT this calculation may have been unfair and that they should have used an actuarial method. Using Rule 78 on an unregulated loan is contrary to section 140 of the CCA "unfair credit relationship".
Do you think I should challenge Firstplus on this isse and get them to re-calculate the settlement figure. We have paid over £3600 at £70 per month since Feb 2006 and still owe about £5400! We just to get rid of Firstplus and any advice will be welcome.
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