A Morgan Stanley account of mine which was on a reduced repayment plan with the original creditor was sold without any notification or Default Notice being issued by Morgan Stanley to the delightful Cabot .
Been advised by some knowlegeable people that the agreeement was rescinded at point of sale to Cabot as no Default Notice was ever issued by Morgan Stanley prior to sale.
Can anyone explain what unlawful rescsssion is and how it applies here if this is the case. What makes the lack of the Default Notice relevant here? And how does this differ from normal Morgan Stanley accounts being taken over by Goldfish and then later Barclaycard in the past few years.
For futher info, in 2009 Cabot issued a Default Notice in thier own right quoting under Section 87(1), which has been followed by an account termination notice. Is this normal practice and more relevant legal??
I have read enough about Cabot to know how slippery they are and how they also think the law is subject to thier own brand of interpretation, so any explanation or advice woul be most welcome.
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Been advised by some knowlegeable people that the agreeement was rescinded at point of sale to Cabot as no Default Notice was ever issued by Morgan Stanley prior to sale.
Can anyone explain what unlawful rescsssion is and how it applies here if this is the case. What makes the lack of the Default Notice relevant here? And how does this differ from normal Morgan Stanley accounts being taken over by Goldfish and then later Barclaycard in the past few years.
For futher info, in 2009 Cabot issued a Default Notice in thier own right quoting under Section 87(1), which has been followed by an account termination notice. Is this normal practice and more relevant legal??
I have read enough about Cabot to know how slippery they are and how they also think the law is subject to thier own brand of interpretation, so any explanation or advice woul be most welcome.
.
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