warning - quite a long read but I think I have raised some interesting points that may help others
Hi
I VT'd my car with Mercedes Benz Financial services last November following templates on this site (they sent me their standard form to sign which I refused because it referred to excess mileage which I do not acknowledge as a legitimate charge). No issues with condition of the car or collection, all smooth. Then I received a bill for excess mileage of just over £1,000.
I wrote back to dispute this stating I didnt believe it was payable under my right to VT under the CCA 74 etc etc.
I was then referred to Mercedes complaints process so wrote a formal complaint noting that under the Consumer Credit Act 1974, I have a statutory right to voluntarily terminate the agreement provided that I have paid at least one half of the total amount payable. My liability under the agreement is limited to half the total amount payable ONLY and any terms under the agreement which imposes additional liability directly or indirectly is strictly prohibited by the Act.
The response simply said it is payable and was within the contract which I signed and the VT form I signed (which as above I had refused to sign so shows how much detail they look at each case on).
In my second stage response I again made reference to the CCA 74 and asked them to confirm exactly where in the Act it confirms that excess mileage is a legitimate charge. I asked them to confirm that should I have gone under my contracted mileage they would have offered me a rebate given that the finance costs increase approx. £10 per month per 1,000. If not then I deemed the charges to be punitive which are excluded from the act to protect consumers.
I also made the point very strongly that the Mercedes Benz salesman had in fact reduced my annual mileage allowance to get the finance within my budget and advised me to "just VT it" when the time came. I had never heard of Voluntary termination prior to this and having had over 12 cars on finance including the last 3 being Mercedes financed through MBFS with no VT's against my name, I did make the point that surely they could see I don't make a habit of this!
Again the response from MBFS was just that it was within the T & Cs of the contract I signed. I should have read it etc etc. They also asked me for evidence that the salesman had told me to reduce my mileage to get my costs down and "just VT it".
So for my third stage response I went to great lengths to express my frustration that they were not addressing my queries so that I could reach any other view on liability than it is not payable. I laid out very clearly every question I had and put in bold the content I was looking for in reply.
Again this was;
The response started off by apologising for her colleague not addressing all of my queries and confirmed that she would within. What do you know? I still didn't get the answers to the key points above and was told that this was their final response.
I wrote back saying I was dismayed that yet again my queries hadn't been answered and asked for confirmation that MBFS were therefore refusing to answer my fundamental queries in an act of admission of liability or was it an error to have not answered them? I have received an email reply today saying they have given me their final response and their position remains that the invoice is payable and to refer to the ombudsman if I am still not happy!
I have an impeccable credit rating and have never had any financial disputes whatsoever. I have confirmed to them that if they provide the evidence I have requested and can convince me that the charges are payable I would of course pay them. They are refusing to answer my queries though and therefore not affording me the opportunity to make an informed decision. I can only draw the conclusion therefore that they know the charges aren't payable.
I have replied to their latest email saying that as they have refused to answer my questions, I do take this non reply as an admission on their part that the charges are not payable else they would have provided the evidence to convince we otherwise.
I will refer to the FOS and requested that they suspend the invoice until the matter has concluded and that they do not put any marker on my credit file given whether the invoice should exist is in dispute and not whether it should be paid.
Sorry this has gone on a bit but I am genuinely dismayed at the approach. If they are so confident they can levy the charges then why not produce the information I feel I have reasonably requested three times now?
Any advice on next steps? Any experience with the FOS on approach to take?
Many thanks in advance for any help!
Hi
I VT'd my car with Mercedes Benz Financial services last November following templates on this site (they sent me their standard form to sign which I refused because it referred to excess mileage which I do not acknowledge as a legitimate charge). No issues with condition of the car or collection, all smooth. Then I received a bill for excess mileage of just over £1,000.
I wrote back to dispute this stating I didnt believe it was payable under my right to VT under the CCA 74 etc etc.
I was then referred to Mercedes complaints process so wrote a formal complaint noting that under the Consumer Credit Act 1974, I have a statutory right to voluntarily terminate the agreement provided that I have paid at least one half of the total amount payable. My liability under the agreement is limited to half the total amount payable ONLY and any terms under the agreement which imposes additional liability directly or indirectly is strictly prohibited by the Act.
The response simply said it is payable and was within the contract which I signed and the VT form I signed (which as above I had refused to sign so shows how much detail they look at each case on).
In my second stage response I again made reference to the CCA 74 and asked them to confirm exactly where in the Act it confirms that excess mileage is a legitimate charge. I asked them to confirm that should I have gone under my contracted mileage they would have offered me a rebate given that the finance costs increase approx. £10 per month per 1,000. If not then I deemed the charges to be punitive which are excluded from the act to protect consumers.
I also made the point very strongly that the Mercedes Benz salesman had in fact reduced my annual mileage allowance to get the finance within my budget and advised me to "just VT it" when the time came. I had never heard of Voluntary termination prior to this and having had over 12 cars on finance including the last 3 being Mercedes financed through MBFS with no VT's against my name, I did make the point that surely they could see I don't make a habit of this!
Again the response from MBFS was just that it was within the T & Cs of the contract I signed. I should have read it etc etc. They also asked me for evidence that the salesman had told me to reduce my mileage to get my costs down and "just VT it".
So for my third stage response I went to great lengths to express my frustration that they were not addressing my queries so that I could reach any other view on liability than it is not payable. I laid out very clearly every question I had and put in bold the content I was looking for in reply.
Again this was;
- which clause of the CCA 74 expressly states excess mileage is payable? I pointed out that my signature only appears on page 2 of the contract within the box referring to the agreement being under the CCA 74. My signature does not appear on the next several pages which consist of their own punitive T & Cs which are merely appended to the rear of my agreement. I believe there is good reason for this!
- Would they have given me a rebate for going under my contracted mileage and if not how do they justify charging for going over when your monthly costs are directly linked to the mileage contracted (punitive!)?
- I said I of course had no record of a conversation with the salesman from nearly 4 years ago, so conversely could they provide me with induction/training material given to their sales teams expressly prohibits/educates on misselling (that we all know goes on and is most prevalent with Audi from what friends have told me with some crashing down to 5,000 miles a year to get the deal within budget!).
- I asked that if mileage was a factor in the condition of the car upon return, why do the vehicle return standards not differ as someone doing 20,000 miles per annum (and paying the monthly premium to do so) has to return the car in the same condition as someone doing (and paying for) 5,000 per annum when they have a higher chance of incurring damage because of increased road time.
- I asked, that without breaching the data protection act, could they confirm if they have ever waived the alleged excess mileage charges for other customers and if so to set out how their circumstances changed from mine.
The response started off by apologising for her colleague not addressing all of my queries and confirmed that she would within. What do you know? I still didn't get the answers to the key points above and was told that this was their final response.
I wrote back saying I was dismayed that yet again my queries hadn't been answered and asked for confirmation that MBFS were therefore refusing to answer my fundamental queries in an act of admission of liability or was it an error to have not answered them? I have received an email reply today saying they have given me their final response and their position remains that the invoice is payable and to refer to the ombudsman if I am still not happy!
I have an impeccable credit rating and have never had any financial disputes whatsoever. I have confirmed to them that if they provide the evidence I have requested and can convince me that the charges are payable I would of course pay them. They are refusing to answer my queries though and therefore not affording me the opportunity to make an informed decision. I can only draw the conclusion therefore that they know the charges aren't payable.
I have replied to their latest email saying that as they have refused to answer my questions, I do take this non reply as an admission on their part that the charges are not payable else they would have provided the evidence to convince we otherwise.
I will refer to the FOS and requested that they suspend the invoice until the matter has concluded and that they do not put any marker on my credit file given whether the invoice should exist is in dispute and not whether it should be paid.
Sorry this has gone on a bit but I am genuinely dismayed at the approach. If they are so confident they can levy the charges then why not produce the information I feel I have reasonably requested three times now?
Any advice on next steps? Any experience with the FOS on approach to take?
Many thanks in advance for any help!
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