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So I recently opened a new Credit Card with Natwest. As the account was linked to my existing current account with NatWest, I assumed payment would be automatically taken from my account each month.
After the first month I received a call from NatWest stating that the payment was late and that could I pay today?I explained that I had assumed because the accounts were linked, a payment would automatically be taken, and immediately paid the overdue amount over the phone and also setup a direct debit with them at the same time.
A few months later my partner and I applied for a mortgage in principal which was declined due to a ‘delinquent account’ on my credit file. After checking my Experian report I found that it was this NatWest Credit card payment. I wrote to them to explain the situation and that ‘as soon as I had been made aware that a payment was overdue I immediately paid and also set up a direct debit for future payments, and that ALL of my payments since had been on time’. In my letter as recommended by many forums online, I asked if with these circumstances taken into consideration, they could as a goodwill act, remove the late payment mark from my credit file as it was now substantially effecting my ability to get a mortgage.
I received a phone call today from NatWest stating that as there was no error on their part, they could not remove the late payment mark on my credit file. My argument to them then, was that they had not at ANY point tried to contact me to let me know a payment was missing and that a late payment mark would now be applied to my credit file.They claim that they tried to call me once a few days before but admitted that a voicemail had not been left when it should have. They also claim to have sent me a letter a few days before, which we did not receive.
I was told however, that me receiving this contact by phone or post would not have changed the fact that a late payment mark would be made on my credit file.
So I clarified with them, and they confirmed that:
- They send the monthly credit card statement through which states here’s your balance this month, ‘please pay within X days’
- If a payment is not received within the given timeframe, no contact is made whatsoever with the customer prior to marking a late payment on their credit file.
I feel that this is COMPLETELY unfair as I was not even made aware that a payment was late until after they had already marked my credit file. Surely any bank or lender would always contact a client first if a payment was late by a few days before marking their credit file as a ‘delinquent account’.
Any advice on where I stand here, would be really greatly appreciated.
Many thanks in advance.
After the first month I received a call from NatWest stating that the payment was late and that could I pay today?I explained that I had assumed because the accounts were linked, a payment would automatically be taken, and immediately paid the overdue amount over the phone and also setup a direct debit with them at the same time.
A few months later my partner and I applied for a mortgage in principal which was declined due to a ‘delinquent account’ on my credit file. After checking my Experian report I found that it was this NatWest Credit card payment. I wrote to them to explain the situation and that ‘as soon as I had been made aware that a payment was overdue I immediately paid and also set up a direct debit for future payments, and that ALL of my payments since had been on time’. In my letter as recommended by many forums online, I asked if with these circumstances taken into consideration, they could as a goodwill act, remove the late payment mark from my credit file as it was now substantially effecting my ability to get a mortgage.
I received a phone call today from NatWest stating that as there was no error on their part, they could not remove the late payment mark on my credit file. My argument to them then, was that they had not at ANY point tried to contact me to let me know a payment was missing and that a late payment mark would now be applied to my credit file.They claim that they tried to call me once a few days before but admitted that a voicemail had not been left when it should have. They also claim to have sent me a letter a few days before, which we did not receive.
I was told however, that me receiving this contact by phone or post would not have changed the fact that a late payment mark would be made on my credit file.
So I clarified with them, and they confirmed that:
- They send the monthly credit card statement through which states here’s your balance this month, ‘please pay within X days’
- If a payment is not received within the given timeframe, no contact is made whatsoever with the customer prior to marking a late payment on their credit file.
I feel that this is COMPLETELY unfair as I was not even made aware that a payment was late until after they had already marked my credit file. Surely any bank or lender would always contact a client first if a payment was late by a few days before marking their credit file as a ‘delinquent account’.
Any advice on where I stand here, would be really greatly appreciated.
Many thanks in advance.
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