Hi,
I am still perplexed about the situation I find myself in. It must seem quite incredible to an outsider, but I assure you that the situation described below is genuine.
I have a fixed term loan which is exactly half way through. I have made every payment as stipulated by the agreement, on time, no delay.
With regard to this issue, I have received only a default notice (s87.1) from my creditor, dated 8 Sept, which informed me of a sum I had 'defaulted' (which in no way related to the payments I make) and that I had until 29 Sept to make the payment or, etc. etc.. It was properly formed, but was, as far as I can tell, plucked completely out of the air. I contacted the lender (c16 Sept) to inform them of their error, but received no response. I do not see this as being in anyway significant other than that it is a symptom of far greater errors made by the lender.
The next letter I received (dated 24 Sept) was from a collections agency stating that they acted on behalf of my lender and requesting that I pay the outstanding amount of my loan. I, as a layman, took this to mean that my agreement had been terminated.
Knowing that all payments by myself had been made, and believing (without any doubt) the claim of default to be completely erroneous, I declared to the lender by special delivery letter (received by them 1 Oct) that they were acting incorrectly, and that I considered the agreement no longer to exist, and that I would make no further payments with regard to it. At the time, I thought this would lead to negotiating a more favourable agreement for the remaining debt, facilitated by their erroneous actions.
The only other letter I have received about this is a second collection notice from the DCA stating that my full payment is overdue.
To clarify, I have had no s86b notice of sums in arrears, I have had no s86e notice of default sums, I had received no termination letter, or s82a notice of assignment to the DCA. Also, they have not responded to me in the near month and a half since I first communicated with them - I have sent several further communications.
I should also point out that I received no s76 termination notice, required if the termination is not for default.
This seems about as clear cut a fundamental breach as can be, yet I gather from this and other forums that it cannot be considered to be so as it is a fixed term credit agreement. I can find nothing in CCA 1974 to support that, and am worried that I have missed something important that means that the lender is not susceptible to any kind of sanction, despite costs resulting, damages (under DPA98) and distress caused.
Is s140 the only recourse? I find it difficult to accept that the OC can roll back to the agreement unilaterally when I have accepted the termination.
I am still perplexed about the situation I find myself in. It must seem quite incredible to an outsider, but I assure you that the situation described below is genuine.
I have a fixed term loan which is exactly half way through. I have made every payment as stipulated by the agreement, on time, no delay.
With regard to this issue, I have received only a default notice (s87.1) from my creditor, dated 8 Sept, which informed me of a sum I had 'defaulted' (which in no way related to the payments I make) and that I had until 29 Sept to make the payment or, etc. etc.. It was properly formed, but was, as far as I can tell, plucked completely out of the air. I contacted the lender (c16 Sept) to inform them of their error, but received no response. I do not see this as being in anyway significant other than that it is a symptom of far greater errors made by the lender.
The next letter I received (dated 24 Sept) was from a collections agency stating that they acted on behalf of my lender and requesting that I pay the outstanding amount of my loan. I, as a layman, took this to mean that my agreement had been terminated.
Knowing that all payments by myself had been made, and believing (without any doubt) the claim of default to be completely erroneous, I declared to the lender by special delivery letter (received by them 1 Oct) that they were acting incorrectly, and that I considered the agreement no longer to exist, and that I would make no further payments with regard to it. At the time, I thought this would lead to negotiating a more favourable agreement for the remaining debt, facilitated by their erroneous actions.
The only other letter I have received about this is a second collection notice from the DCA stating that my full payment is overdue.
To clarify, I have had no s86b notice of sums in arrears, I have had no s86e notice of default sums, I had received no termination letter, or s82a notice of assignment to the DCA. Also, they have not responded to me in the near month and a half since I first communicated with them - I have sent several further communications.
I should also point out that I received no s76 termination notice, required if the termination is not for default.
This seems about as clear cut a fundamental breach as can be, yet I gather from this and other forums that it cannot be considered to be so as it is a fixed term credit agreement. I can find nothing in CCA 1974 to support that, and am worried that I have missed something important that means that the lender is not susceptible to any kind of sanction, despite costs resulting, damages (under DPA98) and distress caused.
Is s140 the only recourse? I find it difficult to accept that the OC can roll back to the agreement unilaterally when I have accepted the termination.
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