Hi
I am new to this forum and wondered whether anyone can help my current very stressful situation.
I have been a customer with FP since April 2004 when I took out a £40k loan over 20 years with my now estranged husband.
As background, FP/Eversheds took us to court in June this year as my husband who still lives in the mortgaged property fell behind with payments.
Prior to the court case I wrote at least 3 times to FP/Eversheds and requested a redemption figure as we were placing our house on the market for sale but we did not receive a reply. However 3 weeks prior to the hearing they stated in their witness statement to the court that the “total balance outstanding” was £31K (arrears of £4500).
By the time we went to court we had submitted a PPI complaint about 5 weeks earlier and received an offer to purchase our property (we ensured that we accepted the offer price that would cover our 1st mortgage and the amount of £31K that FP stated was outstanding). The judge granted repossession within 3 months to FP/Eversheds on the basis that our PPI complaint was pending and our house was in the process of being sold. A money order of £31k was also awarded to FP for the total monies owing on the loan.
Eversheds wrote to us just after the court case confirming the outcome and confirmed that the proceeds of the sale we had agreed would cover the 1st and 2nd charges.
On 5 September we were notified by FP that our PPI complaint has been successful, the financial redress is sufficient to clear the arrears (in fact FP owes us twice as much as we owe them!) and they are re-structuring the loan so that our balance is amended from £31k to £20k but at the same time our solicitor managing our house sale received a letter from Eversheds dated 6 September stating that the redemption figure is £47K meaning that the proceeds from the sale will now not cover the amount owing to FP.
Can anyone explain this disparity of almost £30k, why we were advised total amount due is vastly different and is there any redress? (I, perhaps, naively assumed that “total balance due” is exactly that and if placed in writing is legally binding).
I am new to this forum and wondered whether anyone can help my current very stressful situation.
I have been a customer with FP since April 2004 when I took out a £40k loan over 20 years with my now estranged husband.
As background, FP/Eversheds took us to court in June this year as my husband who still lives in the mortgaged property fell behind with payments.
Prior to the court case I wrote at least 3 times to FP/Eversheds and requested a redemption figure as we were placing our house on the market for sale but we did not receive a reply. However 3 weeks prior to the hearing they stated in their witness statement to the court that the “total balance outstanding” was £31K (arrears of £4500).
By the time we went to court we had submitted a PPI complaint about 5 weeks earlier and received an offer to purchase our property (we ensured that we accepted the offer price that would cover our 1st mortgage and the amount of £31K that FP stated was outstanding). The judge granted repossession within 3 months to FP/Eversheds on the basis that our PPI complaint was pending and our house was in the process of being sold. A money order of £31k was also awarded to FP for the total monies owing on the loan.
Eversheds wrote to us just after the court case confirming the outcome and confirmed that the proceeds of the sale we had agreed would cover the 1st and 2nd charges.
On 5 September we were notified by FP that our PPI complaint has been successful, the financial redress is sufficient to clear the arrears (in fact FP owes us twice as much as we owe them!) and they are re-structuring the loan so that our balance is amended from £31k to £20k but at the same time our solicitor managing our house sale received a letter from Eversheds dated 6 September stating that the redemption figure is £47K meaning that the proceeds from the sale will now not cover the amount owing to FP.
Can anyone explain this disparity of almost £30k, why we were advised total amount due is vastly different and is there any redress? (I, perhaps, naively assumed that “total balance due” is exactly that and if placed in writing is legally binding).
Comment