Re: bank loan,defective dn, but contract specifically has clause about termination
Not when Unlawfully rescinded. What your saying is that regardless of lawful rescission and/or unlawful rescission, both parties would be due to repay all liabilities. Sorry its does not work like that in the case of unlawful rescission - You can't have it both ways peter.
When a claiment unlawfully rescinds an agreement/contract the innocent party (debtor) is entitled to continue to make repayments as per the agreements terms for arrears owed (not full amount of the loan) upto the date of termination or invalid DN (which ever of the two comes first, which may depend on type of agreement/contract) only - though the contract between the two parties still ceases to exist when terminated whether lawfully or unlawfully. And debtor would also be entitled to costs and compensation as a result of the claiments unlawful rescission and legal action against them. In such cases a judge will likely award costs and damages in the debtors favour, as debtor will have shown he/she are willing to repay the arrears as per the terms - though the judge is also likely to write off the debt as a result of the claiments vexatious legal action and/or possible harassment endured as a result of the claiments attempts to enforce a debt that they are not entitled to enforce.
Also section 87 makes it clear that for the need of a valid DN to demand earlier payment of any sum - So if the DN is invalid they can not even claim the arrears let alone the full amount of the debt. So once terminated of the back of a faulty DN (unlawful rescission) the innocent party (debtor) can by right withhold sums as the creditor is not entitled to demand any earlier payment of any sum. Therefore it is upto the debtor if they wish to repay the arrears upto the date of the DN as per the terms of the original unlawfully rescinded agreement or not (though it usually works in their favour if they do). Even if the agreement was terminated and no longer exists they can still refer to the terms for making such repayments and are therefore honouring their part of the agreement even though the creditor unlawfully terminated it of the back of a faulty DN and as such is not entitled to earlier repayment of any sums.
I noticed, and have said before, that you seem to be one of, if not the main advocate against the use of unlawful rescission on a number of consumer forums and wrongly assume the act does not allow for unlawful termination (unlawful rescission/repudiation) - Which is like saying its not allowed because its a breach of statutory law and statutory law can not be breached - sorry but actions that go directly against statutory law is a breach of such law. Your logic would mean if i raped a woman (a statutory offence), then as its breach of statutory law, such rape would be deemed as not having occured by your reckoning.
Remeber your post here and qouted below - Consumer Credit Support - View Single Post - Unlawfully terminated accounts.
The content of the qoute aboive says to me your not 100% certain with regards to the act and termination (though i accept it was posted in feb 2010) - For the record, in regards to the termination on non defaulted accounts, yes they can be terminated during the period of the agreement and the correct notice period prior to termination is given - Though once a default is issued they can no longer relying on section 98 to terminate as they will have already acted upon section 87 which once inacted does not allow for them to terminate prior to the remedy date or without a valid defualt - if they do then its unlawful rescission. Also 98 (6) prevents them from using 96 (1) to terminate in the event of a breach by the debtor which means they would have to issue a default notice to terminate in the event of a breach by the debtor under section 87.
I think we simply need to agree to disagree on this too peter.
Originally posted by peterbard
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When a claiment unlawfully rescinds an agreement/contract the innocent party (debtor) is entitled to continue to make repayments as per the agreements terms for arrears owed (not full amount of the loan) upto the date of termination or invalid DN (which ever of the two comes first, which may depend on type of agreement/contract) only - though the contract between the two parties still ceases to exist when terminated whether lawfully or unlawfully. And debtor would also be entitled to costs and compensation as a result of the claiments unlawful rescission and legal action against them. In such cases a judge will likely award costs and damages in the debtors favour, as debtor will have shown he/she are willing to repay the arrears as per the terms - though the judge is also likely to write off the debt as a result of the claiments vexatious legal action and/or possible harassment endured as a result of the claiments attempts to enforce a debt that they are not entitled to enforce.
Also section 87 makes it clear that for the need of a valid DN to demand earlier payment of any sum - So if the DN is invalid they can not even claim the arrears let alone the full amount of the debt. So once terminated of the back of a faulty DN (unlawful rescission) the innocent party (debtor) can by right withhold sums as the creditor is not entitled to demand any earlier payment of any sum. Therefore it is upto the debtor if they wish to repay the arrears upto the date of the DN as per the terms of the original unlawfully rescinded agreement or not (though it usually works in their favour if they do). Even if the agreement was terminated and no longer exists they can still refer to the terms for making such repayments and are therefore honouring their part of the agreement even though the creditor unlawfully terminated it of the back of a faulty DN and as such is not entitled to earlier repayment of any sums.
I noticed, and have said before, that you seem to be one of, if not the main advocate against the use of unlawful rescission on a number of consumer forums and wrongly assume the act does not allow for unlawful termination (unlawful rescission/repudiation) - Which is like saying its not allowed because its a breach of statutory law and statutory law can not be breached - sorry but actions that go directly against statutory law is a breach of such law. Your logic would mean if i raped a woman (a statutory offence), then as its breach of statutory law, such rape would be deemed as not having occured by your reckoning.
Remeber your post here and qouted below - Consumer Credit Support - View Single Post - Unlawfully terminated accounts.
hi
just descovered this old thread.Wondered if anyone has had any furter thoughts.
Some people are under the impression that becaiuse a credit can agrement has been terminated,prior to default then a defaltn notice cannot be issued.
My belief has always been that any party can terminate a contract any time he likes. The liability under the contradct does not dissapear of course.
I have heard judges say that the contract has been terminated undre section98. My initial response to this was ,surely this is for fixed period loans only, but if you look at the section the fixed sum bit is only mentioned in the subsection.
So does this not mean that the ability to terminate none defaulting agreements exists under the cca.
The OFT says in its guidlines say that it is not nessesRRY TO send default notices on none defaulting agreements on runnoing credit accounts sop they seem to think so any thoughts
Peter
just descovered this old thread.Wondered if anyone has had any furter thoughts.
Some people are under the impression that becaiuse a credit can agrement has been terminated,prior to default then a defaltn notice cannot be issued.
My belief has always been that any party can terminate a contract any time he likes. The liability under the contradct does not dissapear of course.
I have heard judges say that the contract has been terminated undre section98. My initial response to this was ,surely this is for fixed period loans only, but if you look at the section the fixed sum bit is only mentioned in the subsection.
So does this not mean that the ability to terminate none defaulting agreements exists under the cca.
The OFT says in its guidlines say that it is not nessesRRY TO send default notices on none defaulting agreements on runnoing credit accounts sop they seem to think so any thoughts
Peter
I think we simply need to agree to disagree on this too peter.
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