Hi I recieved a statutory demand recently from a debt agency relating to some leased equipment of which I am guarantor. The debt of for approx £1200. The debt has been assigned (though not seen proof of this) from the leasing company to the debt agency. The stat demand was hand delivered 15 days ago.
The history. We ran a pub and had fridge/freezer on lease value of approx £7000. Pub went out of business landlord forfeited the lease, phoned leasing company said equipment was faulty, had no contact with me (the lessee of the equipment) and persuaded them to sell him the equipment for £250. My problem is the equipment WAS working fine, the landlord HAD contact with us, and that the leasing company had sold the equipment to him for a lot less than it was worth (probably at least £2000 second hand). If the equipment hadn't been sold CHEAP and the landlord had not LIED to get his hands on it, I would not be in this situation at all.
Any suggestions. I doubt the above is enough reason to get this set aside is it? Need help quick.
The history. We ran a pub and had fridge/freezer on lease value of approx £7000. Pub went out of business landlord forfeited the lease, phoned leasing company said equipment was faulty, had no contact with me (the lessee of the equipment) and persuaded them to sell him the equipment for £250. My problem is the equipment WAS working fine, the landlord HAD contact with us, and that the leasing company had sold the equipment to him for a lot less than it was worth (probably at least £2000 second hand). If the equipment hadn't been sold CHEAP and the landlord had not LIED to get his hands on it, I would not be in this situation at all.
Any suggestions. I doubt the above is enough reason to get this set aside is it? Need help quick.
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