Hi,
This is my first post here so apologies if I've done the wrong thing by creating a new thread.
I have a question regarding whether or not a credit card debt might be unenforceable on the grounds of missing "prescribed terms" in the credit agreement. The card was taken out in 2005.
The law seems very complex so it's hard to establish what may or not be correct in my case
Any advice gratefully received
Thanks in advance
This is my first post here so apologies if I've done the wrong thing by creating a new thread.
I have a question regarding whether or not a credit card debt might be unenforceable on the grounds of missing "prescribed terms" in the credit agreement. The card was taken out in 2005.
The law seems very complex so it's hard to establish what may or not be correct in my case
Any advice gratefully received
Thanks in advance
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