Is it single premium PPI and ? PPI rebate??
My partner took out a loan back in 2004. This loan was refinanced several times, but he has limited amount of info on the first loan.
The loans all had PPI which were single premium (added at the start of the loan, along with interest, and to be paid with the general loan).
Briefly his loans were:
Loan 1 - taken out Aug 2004 - Unknown amount (but made 9 payments, equaling £1,102, before refinancing).
Unknown if any PPI rebate was issued.
Loan 2 - taken out May 2005 - £12,418 - Term: 36 months
PPI rebate of £13.38 deducted from the amount you would need to settle your loan
Loan 3 - taken out Oct 2007 - £4,405 - Term 12 months
No PPI refund due as the amount calculated is less than £10
Loan 4 - taken out Aug 2008 - £12,328 - Term 26 months
PPI ended at the end of the loan agreement
All the amounts above are inclusive of the amount borrowed, ppi & the interest for both.
My questions are:
Is this single premium PPI policy a reason in itself to complain about mis-selling, particularly with refinanced loans? Or is that only in the instance where you have not received a rebate and thus the PPI rolled over to the refinanced loan and therefore you're effectively paying twice for the same period of cover?
Is the rebate in itself not unfair and unexplained and so another reason for mis-selling? I'm assuming this is done on a pro rata basis or something, considering the amount he got rebated (from a £1500 PPI cost inc. interest) on loan 2 when refinancing 7 months early.
Really struggling to know how to approach the 'Why is it mid-sold' question on the form because I don't understand this type of policy?
Just wanted some advice is anyone can help. Thanks
My partner took out a loan back in 2004. This loan was refinanced several times, but he has limited amount of info on the first loan.
The loans all had PPI which were single premium (added at the start of the loan, along with interest, and to be paid with the general loan).
Briefly his loans were:
Loan 1 - taken out Aug 2004 - Unknown amount (but made 9 payments, equaling £1,102, before refinancing).
Unknown if any PPI rebate was issued.
Loan 2 - taken out May 2005 - £12,418 - Term: 36 months
PPI rebate of £13.38 deducted from the amount you would need to settle your loan
Loan 3 - taken out Oct 2007 - £4,405 - Term 12 months
No PPI refund due as the amount calculated is less than £10
Loan 4 - taken out Aug 2008 - £12,328 - Term 26 months
PPI ended at the end of the loan agreement
All the amounts above are inclusive of the amount borrowed, ppi & the interest for both.
My questions are:
Is this single premium PPI policy a reason in itself to complain about mis-selling, particularly with refinanced loans? Or is that only in the instance where you have not received a rebate and thus the PPI rolled over to the refinanced loan and therefore you're effectively paying twice for the same period of cover?
Is the rebate in itself not unfair and unexplained and so another reason for mis-selling? I'm assuming this is done on a pro rata basis or something, considering the amount he got rebated (from a £1500 PPI cost inc. interest) on loan 2 when refinancing 7 months early.
Really struggling to know how to approach the 'Why is it mid-sold' question on the form because I don't understand this type of policy?
Just wanted some advice is anyone can help. Thanks
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