Hi,
I do have another thread running, however whilst I wait for a couple of wonderful people who have been giving me advice to get back to me I have a question.
I have a very large debt (just under £30,000) which is solely in my name. It was actually from my mother's nursing home fees and I didn't realise I had signed a form as guarantor when I signed her contract - beyond stupid I know, but that's past.
Our house is mortgaged in joint names with my husband who has no part of the debt and refuses to sell. There is some equity. We have no savings or other investments.
Can the judge order my husband to agree to sell when the debt isn't his? Can they force a possession order when he has no part of this and this is the family home where our two children also live (18 and 20)?
Thank you
I do have another thread running, however whilst I wait for a couple of wonderful people who have been giving me advice to get back to me I have a question.
I have a very large debt (just under £30,000) which is solely in my name. It was actually from my mother's nursing home fees and I didn't realise I had signed a form as guarantor when I signed her contract - beyond stupid I know, but that's past.
Our house is mortgaged in joint names with my husband who has no part of the debt and refuses to sell. There is some equity. We have no savings or other investments.
Can the judge order my husband to agree to sell when the debt isn't his? Can they force a possession order when he has no part of this and this is the family home where our two children also live (18 and 20)?
Thank you
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