Hi. I was wondering if anyone here could clarify what ought to be a fairly routine legal question to which I have so far been able to obtain no clear answer.
My partner is the administrator of her late father's estate. Her father died suddenly and tragically, intestate.
At the time, a woman was living in his house, which he owned outright, and had been for long enough to qualify as a co-habitee under UK law.
She has been able to hold up the probate and is making a claim under the Dependency Act.
I don't think her claim is very strong. Although they co-habited, the deceased kept his financial affairs strictly private and separate. We've asked to see bank statements covering the period before the death, and these have not been supplied. Rather tellingly, she has attempted to extract "interim payments" prior to the mediation stage. There has also been extensive theft from the estate, which we are able to prove.
Frankly, I think this woman is quite deluded, and is getting bad advice from the people around her. However, if mediation fails then the next step would be trial and this is where I am confused.
It is quite possible that in a trial scenario it will be determined that she has substantial savings, that she has materially benefitted from theft from the estate, and is able to support herself. So, in the event that she is awarded a sum equal to or less than that offered during mediation, logically she would be burdened with my partner's defence costs.
And so, I ask, if someone does not possess the means to pay in advance costs which are a reasonable hypothetical outcome, how can that person cause sundry defendants and legal professionals to be arraigned in the first place? I get the impression that even if a legal professional thought there was no chance of recouping their costs from the loser, they would refrain from offering that opinion so long as they were being paid a high hourly rate until that reality became apparent to everyone.
My partner is the administrator of her late father's estate. Her father died suddenly and tragically, intestate.
At the time, a woman was living in his house, which he owned outright, and had been for long enough to qualify as a co-habitee under UK law.
She has been able to hold up the probate and is making a claim under the Dependency Act.
I don't think her claim is very strong. Although they co-habited, the deceased kept his financial affairs strictly private and separate. We've asked to see bank statements covering the period before the death, and these have not been supplied. Rather tellingly, she has attempted to extract "interim payments" prior to the mediation stage. There has also been extensive theft from the estate, which we are able to prove.
Frankly, I think this woman is quite deluded, and is getting bad advice from the people around her. However, if mediation fails then the next step would be trial and this is where I am confused.
It is quite possible that in a trial scenario it will be determined that she has substantial savings, that she has materially benefitted from theft from the estate, and is able to support herself. So, in the event that she is awarded a sum equal to or less than that offered during mediation, logically she would be burdened with my partner's defence costs.
And so, I ask, if someone does not possess the means to pay in advance costs which are a reasonable hypothetical outcome, how can that person cause sundry defendants and legal professionals to be arraigned in the first place? I get the impression that even if a legal professional thought there was no chance of recouping their costs from the loser, they would refrain from offering that opinion so long as they were being paid a high hourly rate until that reality became apparent to everyone.
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