I have a situation where I am invoicing for my time but the client can't afford to pay 100%, I have been advised that I can put an invoice in for say £1,000 and state that an instalment of £500 is now due. This is due to the client not having the cashflow.
This raises a few questions on how this would be represented as my understanding is the full amount should be lodged in the accounts and would therefore show a debt of £500 every time this situation would occur, this would mean debt showing on the accounts which would need to be recorded as such and would show on companies house when the accounts were filed.
An option which has been suggested is to invoice as above but not to actually show the shortfall in the accounts which would require a slight change of wording on the invoice, whilst the shortfall was still outstanding the title of the work would not be granted (Retention of Title). This would be in case the company went into liquidation so I could stop my work being used if they just opened up under another name to avoid paying me the backpay.
Does this approach work from a legal perspective i.e. if they did want to liquidate and set up again could I prevent them from using my work unless they paid me all what was recorded on the invoices despite it not showing in the accounts or would the only to protect me be to have the full amount recorded in the accounts?
This raises a few questions on how this would be represented as my understanding is the full amount should be lodged in the accounts and would therefore show a debt of £500 every time this situation would occur, this would mean debt showing on the accounts which would need to be recorded as such and would show on companies house when the accounts were filed.
An option which has been suggested is to invoice as above but not to actually show the shortfall in the accounts which would require a slight change of wording on the invoice, whilst the shortfall was still outstanding the title of the work would not be granted (Retention of Title). This would be in case the company went into liquidation so I could stop my work being used if they just opened up under another name to avoid paying me the backpay.
Does this approach work from a legal perspective i.e. if they did want to liquidate and set up again could I prevent them from using my work unless they paid me all what was recorded on the invoices despite it not showing in the accounts or would the only to protect me be to have the full amount recorded in the accounts?
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