Mr and mrs smith find their marriage is destroyed by lies told by mr smiths adult stepdaughter. Mr smith moves out of the marital home for period of about two years. Mrs smith stays in the house and lives with her daughter. Mrs Smith makes a will, excluding her husband of the last 55 years in favour of her daughter. Mrs Smith leaves "her half of the house" to her daughter. The house has been owned by Mr and Mrs Smith for 44 years as Joint tenants. Mrs Smith dies. The daughter who has lived there with them for 44 years makes a claim for financial provisions under the Inheritance (Provision for Family and Dependants) Act 1975 claiming she needs her mothers money to support her housing needs.
The daughter tells her step father (mr Smith) that she will invite the court to retrospectively sever the joint tenancy in order to inherit her late mothers estate.
At no time while she was alive did Mrs Smith make any effort to sever the Joint tenancy. Nor did Mr Smith. The daughter moves out of the family home two months after her mothers death and into a modern two bedroom appartment in a good part of town. Mr Smith moved back into his house with the prospect of having to sell it should his step daughter succeed in her legal challenge to his estate. As a joint tenant and a married survivor, Mr Smith became sole owner of the house the moment his wife died. No effort was made by either party to formally sever the joint tenancy when (in Mrs Smiths case at least) she had more than one opportunity to do so and on making a will was probably highly advised to do so.
By what measure would or could a court decide that the tenancy was severed when both parties were not aware of the severence. Obviously, Mrs Smith can no longer say exactly what her wishes were but if her wishes were to leave half her house to her daughter then the easiest way to achieve this would have been to sever the joint tenancy and become a tenant in common rather than wait for her to die and then fight it out in court?
I could expand, but I have tried to keep this as short as possible.
I would very much welcome any comments, thank you.
The daughter tells her step father (mr Smith) that she will invite the court to retrospectively sever the joint tenancy in order to inherit her late mothers estate.
At no time while she was alive did Mrs Smith make any effort to sever the Joint tenancy. Nor did Mr Smith. The daughter moves out of the family home two months after her mothers death and into a modern two bedroom appartment in a good part of town. Mr Smith moved back into his house with the prospect of having to sell it should his step daughter succeed in her legal challenge to his estate. As a joint tenant and a married survivor, Mr Smith became sole owner of the house the moment his wife died. No effort was made by either party to formally sever the joint tenancy when (in Mrs Smiths case at least) she had more than one opportunity to do so and on making a will was probably highly advised to do so.
By what measure would or could a court decide that the tenancy was severed when both parties were not aware of the severence. Obviously, Mrs Smith can no longer say exactly what her wishes were but if her wishes were to leave half her house to her daughter then the easiest way to achieve this would have been to sever the joint tenancy and become a tenant in common rather than wait for her to die and then fight it out in court?
I could expand, but I have tried to keep this as short as possible.
I would very much welcome any comments, thank you.
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