A relative by marriage had their house repossessed in the last year or so. They are now trying to complete on a purchase as a cash buyer using the proceeds of the repossession sale.
The relative, who has a history of lying to cover their tracks, is now saying the purchase cannot proceed because "they have been told that in the money laundering check it was discovered that they shouldn't have been given access to the repossession proceeds until a period of 2 years had elapsed. And if they touch the cash (which is in their bank account) to complete the transaction they risk being convicted of fraud"
Can anyone advise if there is any reality to this or is it another subterfuge?
Many thanks
D
The relative, who has a history of lying to cover their tracks, is now saying the purchase cannot proceed because "they have been told that in the money laundering check it was discovered that they shouldn't have been given access to the repossession proceeds until a period of 2 years had elapsed. And if they touch the cash (which is in their bank account) to complete the transaction they risk being convicted of fraud"
Can anyone advise if there is any reality to this or is it another subterfuge?
Many thanks
D
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