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I would like to know if there are any instances in property or land law where someone could have a legal right to be on property I own. I own a terraced house with my husband. When we bought it we bought it because it had an unusually large garden for a property of its type (it is not large in comparison to other gardens though). At some point in the past the garden had belonged to our house and two other houses, each of them having a share and access to what would have been an outdoor toilet each. All three houses and all the land were bought by one person years ago (I don’t know exactly when) and I believe they lived in what is now our house and rented out the other two. when this owner sold the two rental properties they did not include any land (or we think this is how the situation came about) so the two properties just have access to their backdoors and to their toilets, which are now used as sheds.*
The deeds for our house clearly show that all of the land is owned by and just state that the other two properties have access to the areas I mentioned. This all sounds very straightforward BUT one of our neighbours seems to think that he has some kind of right to the garden. He mentioned one day that his deeds say “shared enjoyment of a garden”. When he said this I thought it sounded more like something an estate agent would write, as they often say “enjoyment of views etc” when trying to make a property sound more appealing. So does anyone think that it is likely that his deeds would say this and if so, what does that mean?*
We have spent a lot of money on making the garden a useable space for our family and are the ones who maintain it.*
The neighbour I am referring to is becoming increasingly difficult and obnoxious about us being in our own garden. We really want to know where we stand legally because we will want to relocate at some point in the future and need everything to be clear when we sell. I would also like to be able to explain this in very clear terms to my neighbour so that he stops harassing us about it!*
Thank you for any help you can give with this.*
The deeds for our house clearly show that all of the land is owned by and just state that the other two properties have access to the areas I mentioned. This all sounds very straightforward BUT one of our neighbours seems to think that he has some kind of right to the garden. He mentioned one day that his deeds say “shared enjoyment of a garden”. When he said this I thought it sounded more like something an estate agent would write, as they often say “enjoyment of views etc” when trying to make a property sound more appealing. So does anyone think that it is likely that his deeds would say this and if so, what does that mean?*
We have spent a lot of money on making the garden a useable space for our family and are the ones who maintain it.*
The neighbour I am referring to is becoming increasingly difficult and obnoxious about us being in our own garden. We really want to know where we stand legally because we will want to relocate at some point in the future and need everything to be clear when we sell. I would also like to be able to explain this in very clear terms to my neighbour so that he stops harassing us about it!*
Thank you for any help you can give with this.*
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