After both their marriages failed, my mother and her sister (my aunt) both ended up living "back at home" with their father (my grandfather) in the house they grew up in.
After my grandfather died, the two of them had a verbal agreement that if one died the other should carry on living in the house.
My aunt then died a few years later and so my mother has been living in the house for a number of years.
Recently my cousins (my aunt's children) have stated that they want their share of the estate, as effectively on my grandfather's death the house would have been split between the 2 daughters.
Now that the family home has been sold and the estate is in the process of being settled, my cousins are demanding that they take into account "occupation rent" that my mother should have been paying whilst living there after my aunts death.
Is there anything in law to allow for a verbal agreement like this.
After my grandfather died, the two of them had a verbal agreement that if one died the other should carry on living in the house.
My aunt then died a few years later and so my mother has been living in the house for a number of years.
Recently my cousins (my aunt's children) have stated that they want their share of the estate, as effectively on my grandfather's death the house would have been split between the 2 daughters.
Now that the family home has been sold and the estate is in the process of being settled, my cousins are demanding that they take into account "occupation rent" that my mother should have been paying whilst living there after my aunts death.
Is there anything in law to allow for a verbal agreement like this.
Comment