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I work for a website design company, we also maintain some clients websites (eCommerce), so we make changes to the website and product info and prices. I was asked the other day to apply a discount to a handful (~5 to 6) products. But I was told to add the discount to the current product price and make the increased price the “regular non sale price”. This would mean that the consumer would not receive the sale discount in actuality. When the sale period was going to be over, the regular sale price would return the price it was before the “so called” discount was applied. For example product x - Original price would be £40 but when the sale discount was applied, the “new” non sale price would be £44 (10% off discount) but the product would be promoted as £40 after the 10% sale discount.
I chose not to apply the discount in this way, as we had just run a Google Ads campaign for the client and none of the product prices had been adjusted from their original set price, so I knew people would notice the price changes (which are not in favour of the consumer). I applied the discount in the correct manner; original price marked down by the discount amount.
I know this has to be classed as misrepresentation, due to myself reading up on the subject. What I would like to know is, would my employer been held equally responsible for this breach in consumer law etc?
I chose not to apply the discount in this way, as we had just run a Google Ads campaign for the client and none of the product prices had been adjusted from their original set price, so I knew people would notice the price changes (which are not in favour of the consumer). I applied the discount in the correct manner; original price marked down by the discount amount.
I know this has to be classed as misrepresentation, due to myself reading up on the subject. What I would like to know is, would my employer been held equally responsible for this breach in consumer law etc?
