Hi,
I have a bank account, which I've had for over 20 years and have been receiving requests to make a payment to clear arrears on what had been a long-standing overdraft facility, This was before Jan 2018 when it was suddenly removed. I had a £700 o/d facility in 2007 and in 2008 a 'personal reserve' of an extra £1000 was added; which I had no need for, and did not agree to,
In 2014, this 'personal reserve' was automatically converted to 'overdraft' by my bank, At the same time fees began to be levied on a daily basis (something which I hadn't experienced before). In the following year I was charged more than £500 in 'daily fees', despite hardly using the account; and this has been similar since. In 2017 this bank agreed, by telephone, to set up a resolve loan for me if I made 3 regular monthly payments for the purpose of a resolve; which I did. The bank stated that I had successfully completed these, but did not put anything in writing to me regarding the 'resolve loan'. I complained to the bank and demanded that they write off the arrears. They accepted making a mistake and responded by offering me all fees back to October 2016; when I had last 'actively' used the account and a new 'resolve' loan to repay the remaining arrears. I was not happy with this and made a complaint to FOS. The investigator agreed with Barclays but pointed out that at this time (July 2017) they had also put 'negative' information on my credit file. I am unsure whether the complaint process is completed and am finding it difficult to discover this.
I did not 'agree' or 'arrange' the part of my overdraft facility of between £700 and £1700. This was added by the bank. What is the status of an "overdraft". Surely it has to be pre-arranged with the customer and is intended for short-term borrowing only. I do not acceot that this part of this bank 'overdraft' can be 'moved to' my original 'overdraft' from before 2014. What is the legal situation?
Any help appreciated.
I have a bank account, which I've had for over 20 years and have been receiving requests to make a payment to clear arrears on what had been a long-standing overdraft facility, This was before Jan 2018 when it was suddenly removed. I had a £700 o/d facility in 2007 and in 2008 a 'personal reserve' of an extra £1000 was added; which I had no need for, and did not agree to,
In 2014, this 'personal reserve' was automatically converted to 'overdraft' by my bank, At the same time fees began to be levied on a daily basis (something which I hadn't experienced before). In the following year I was charged more than £500 in 'daily fees', despite hardly using the account; and this has been similar since. In 2017 this bank agreed, by telephone, to set up a resolve loan for me if I made 3 regular monthly payments for the purpose of a resolve; which I did. The bank stated that I had successfully completed these, but did not put anything in writing to me regarding the 'resolve loan'. I complained to the bank and demanded that they write off the arrears. They accepted making a mistake and responded by offering me all fees back to October 2016; when I had last 'actively' used the account and a new 'resolve' loan to repay the remaining arrears. I was not happy with this and made a complaint to FOS. The investigator agreed with Barclays but pointed out that at this time (July 2017) they had also put 'negative' information on my credit file. I am unsure whether the complaint process is completed and am finding it difficult to discover this.
I did not 'agree' or 'arrange' the part of my overdraft facility of between £700 and £1700. This was added by the bank. What is the status of an "overdraft". Surely it has to be pre-arranged with the customer and is intended for short-term borrowing only. I do not acceot that this part of this bank 'overdraft' can be 'moved to' my original 'overdraft' from before 2014. What is the legal situation?
Any help appreciated.
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