Re: Suing the Council for wrongful prosecution.
I used quotation marks to separate your text from mine or other sources.
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Di you state this: "The bottom line is "Forfeiture" does not apply to rented properties - it only applies to Freeholder/Lessee situations."
How does one define rented property? It is an interest in land is limited to either via ownership or a leasehold (section 1 (1 (b), LPA1925, or Assured Tenancy (Housing Act 1988) In any event, an Assured Tenancy isof sorts a protected Leasehold - as an interest/ right in land as aforementioned can only be a either ownership, ie fee simple in possession or leasehold, ie terms of years absolute. Forfeiture as above, relates to the landlord ending a terms of years absolute whether it's commercial, private, or state leasehold.
A forfeiture relates to landlord remedies in leases to end the land law agreement (contract)/ ie the tenancy agreement, owing to non payment of rent. So, it applies to leases - which can be construed as 'renting an estate in land.'
It apparently does not apply to assured tenancies but which begs the question why the landlord was given possession albeit a suspended possession of the interest in Ms Andrist's land. So, inferentially Ms Andrist has a statutory protected terms of years absolute given she can alternatively have ownership rights albeit the landlord has the free simple, meaning she has the leasehold/ terms of years absolute. Ms Andrist, did you incidentally protect your interest in land on the property's land register?
Originally posted by Diana M
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Originally posted by Diana M
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How does one define rented property? It is an interest in land is limited to either via ownership or a leasehold (section 1 (1 (b), LPA1925, or Assured Tenancy (Housing Act 1988) In any event, an Assured Tenancy isof sorts a protected Leasehold - as an interest/ right in land as aforementioned can only be a either ownership, ie fee simple in possession or leasehold, ie terms of years absolute. Forfeiture as above, relates to the landlord ending a terms of years absolute whether it's commercial, private, or state leasehold.
A forfeiture relates to landlord remedies in leases to end the land law agreement (contract)/ ie the tenancy agreement, owing to non payment of rent. So, it applies to leases - which can be construed as 'renting an estate in land.'
It apparently does not apply to assured tenancies but which begs the question why the landlord was given possession albeit a suspended possession of the interest in Ms Andrist's land. So, inferentially Ms Andrist has a statutory protected terms of years absolute given she can alternatively have ownership rights albeit the landlord has the free simple, meaning she has the leasehold/ terms of years absolute. Ms Andrist, did you incidentally protect your interest in land on the property's land register?
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