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Is there REALLY a case against the banks ?

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  • Is there REALLY a case against the banks ?

    After looking at a lot of cases and doing a lot of reading since, and before, the final blow in the Supreme Court I think it would be a jolly good idea to have a discussion on the ACTUAL merits of continuing the fight for redress for historical bank charges in the courts system.

    I know I WANT there to be a case, but I am also very aware that this desire to get some redress for the banks actions in the past may be clouding my judgment and that I'm not looking entirely objectively at the merits of the 'new arguments'

    The main arguments for discussion are

    1. UTCCR Reg. 5(1) – An imbalance of rights and obligations, contrary to good faith, and to the detriment of the consumer.

    2. The Misrepresentation Act 1967 or common law Mistake

    3. The Competition Act 1998, Chapter II

    4. Undue influence (common law)

    5. CCA 1974 (as amended), s140A & 140B – unfair relationship

    6. Common law penalty

    So hopefully looking at the converse side (ie the side that isnt trying to make the law fit our case ) and think about what the banks will defend, will help us make our case stronger

    So one bit I've been thinking on is Misrepresentation.

    2. The Misrepresentation Act 1967 or common law Mistake

    To use this to gain any redress the consumer needs to show the misrepresentation or Mistake acted to their DETRIMENT. Can we do this? I'm not so sure.

    The Banks told us all, over and over, that the charges for what are now called 'instant overdraft requests', were punishment fees for put us off doing it again and to cover their costs. We know thats what they were, but obviously the Supreme Court and High Court have found that was not the case. SO the banks misrepresented a legitimate facility to allow you to spend money you dont have in a very expensive way. Had the banks NOT misrepresented the charges as penalties (a punishment for breaking the terms of your contract) then would you have been better or worse off ? or would there have been no difference in the way you acted with your account ? My thoughts are that if you think you will be punished by a fee you will take more care to avoid the fees than if you know you are applying for an expensive short term loan.

    As we put it in our submissions to the OFT ''Consumers would aver that they had been acting on a misrepresented but reasonable assumption that the relevant terms were related to costs rather than service charges and would contend that the charges should not have been part of the consideration in exchange for any so called contracted 'package' of services. Should it matter if the relevant charges are for a service disguised as a penalty or for a cross subsidy disguised as a service? ''

    So can we, and if so how, prove that the misrepresentation of the charges historically was to our detriment ?????????


    The other bit is the obvious...

    1. UTCCR Reg. 5(1) – An imbalance of rights and obligations, contrary to good faith, and to the detriment of the consumer.


    I have problems with some of the arguments put forwards relating to the grey list in the UTCCR

    (g) enabling the seller or supplier to terminate a contract of indeterminate duration without reasonable notice except where there are serious grounds for doing so;

    (j) enabling the seller or supplier to alter the terms of the contract unilaterally without a valid reason which is specified in the contract;

    (l) providing for the price of goods to be determined at the time of delivery or allowing a seller of goods or supplier of services to increase their price without in both cases giving the consumer the corresponding right to cancel the contract if the final price is too high in relation to the price agreed when the contract was concluded;
    Yep that all sounds okay until you reach para 2 of the schedule....

    2. Scope of paragraphs 1(g), (j) and (l)

    • (a) Paragraph 1(g) is without hindrance to terms by which a supplier of financial services reserves the right to terminate unilaterally a contract of indeterminate duration without notice where there is a valid reason, provided that the supplier is required to inform the other contracting party or parties thereof immediately.

      (b) Paragraph 1(j) is without hindrance to terms under which a supplier of financial services reserves the right to alter the rate of interest payable by the consumer or due to the latter, or the amount of other charges for financial services without notice where there is a valid reason, provided that the supplier is required to inform the other contracting party or parties thereof at the earliest opportunity and that the latter are free to dissolve the contract immediately.

      Paragraph 1(j) is also without hindrance to terms under which a seller or supplier reserves the right to alter unilaterally the conditions of a contract of indeterminate duration, provided that he is required to inform the consumer with reasonable notice and that the consumer is free to dissolve the contract.
    self explanatory really - take for example the Penalty Charges defence to strike out list of reasons their might be an unfair imbalance...

    a. The bank reserves itself the right to vary terms and conditions as it sees fit. ( COVERED BY a above)
    b. These variations are imposed without discussion with the customer. (covered by b)
    c. The customer has no choice other than to accept the imposition of new or varied terms or else to accept the contract as terminated. (covered by b)
    d. The bank not only varies the banking contract because of business necessity such as to reflect an increased level of inflation or an increased bank base rate – but also to restructure a banking product or to raise interest rates beyond what is needed to maintain the status quo. Such variations are to the prejudice of the customer. yep agree but how do you prove that ? and is it actually against competition rather than UTCCR ?
    e. It is submitted that such accumulated variations over a period of time add up to substantially a banking relationship which is wholly different to that which existed at the time the original contract was made and wholly different to expectations of either party (bank/customer) at the time the original contract was made. (covered by b)


    Any thoughts ?

    and then of course there is the limited scope of

    5. CCA 1974 (as amended), s140A & 140B – unfair relationship

    It only applies to charges incurred after April 08, or to charges which remain outstanding which were incurred previously.


    also

    6. Common law penalty


    without overturning the Supreme Court Judgment and SMiths high court judgment I can't see a way on earth to get that argument back and accepted.

    As I said a few days back talking about the UTCCR judgment obliterating any penalty arguments - ''I think it does because the charges are the same which ever law you look at them under so if they are deemed 'a part of the price for a package of services' under UTCCR then they ARE 'part of the price for the package of services ' generally and as such cannot possibly be a breach. They can't be a breach under common law AND 'a part of the price for a package of services' which destroys any hopes of getting ANY of the charges deemed as capable of being penaltys (even those judged to be in Smiths judgment) as the UTCCR ''a part of the price for a package of services' superceeds that.''


    Okay thats me for now, I have some issues with the Competition arguments too but I need to go back and collect up the references as its all a bit complicated lol, hope you understand why I want to look at the other side of the coin and understand I'm not being defeatist by any stretch of the imagination, and will want to thrash out these points as well.

    Any views, thoughts, slaps etc very welcome
    #staysafestayhome

    Any support I provide is offered without liability, if you are unsure please seek professional legal guidance.

    Received a Court Claim? Read >>>>> First Steps

  • #2
    Re: Is there REALLY a case against the banks ?

    I have to be honest like most people i'm a bit lost on most of the legal bits but have been thinking about the mistaken bit. The thought process of a consumer is different when looking at a fine compared to when looking at a service, this is where the detriment comes in. If I wanted to park my car and had a choice of 2 car parks would I choose the one with a lower penalty charge if I exceeded my time of pay and display. To be honest I wouldn't even look at it. The same process would follow when opening my bank account, who cares about those fees I'm not going to breach the terms.

    However if the car parks were competitive service providers and did not fine individuals for breaching terms, instead offering a package for those parking I would pay attention and shop around choosing the most flexible, cost effect place to park.

    The other area (non legal) that we need to take into account is that the banks repaid £700 million. Why? because of the fantastic legal argument we all had then? No, because the court dismissed penalties and 6.2. The way I see it is the arguments now being used do not have to be watertight as they never will be they just need to apply and form the basis of argument. A court can then go either way with it's decision. That is what the banks are fearful of a decision at county court level against them and opening the flood gates.

    Hope this makes sense. Keep your chin up, the work you do is incredible, this is a fight and don't forget when you fight you don't have to necessarily play by the rules to win. Taking a tip from the banks there!

    Comment


    • #3
      Re: Is there REALLY a case against the banks ?

      We have to look at the FSA latest site moves to see what is happening there, but I agree also with Ame completely, on this subject.

      Comment


      • #4
        Re: Is there REALLY a case against the banks ?

        I'm confused as to why b exists at all? Why just for financial services?

        Comment


        • #5
          Re: Is there REALLY a case against the banks ?

          (b) Paragraph 1(j) is without hindrance to terms under which a supplier of financial services reserves the right to alter the rate of interest payable by the consumer or due to the latter, or the amount of other charges for financial services without notice where there is a valid reason, provided that the supplier is required to inform the other contracting party or parties thereof at the earliest opportunity and that the latter are free to dissolve the contract immediately.


          that bit sarah ?
          #staysafestayhome

          Any support I provide is offered without liability, if you are unsure please seek professional legal guidance.

          Received a Court Claim? Read >>>>> First Steps

          Comment


          • #6
            Re: Is there REALLY a case against the banks ?

            Also, what constitutes a "valid reason"? according to the rest of this SI, if the meaning is unclear the interpretation must favour the consumer?...

            If we are to say for any reason, at whim? then we are to say case (j) and financial services have an exemption, so it's not an unfair contract term if someone has a guaranteed interest rate on a savings product, the financial institution reserves the right to change this only in exceptional circumstances, and then decides that because the base rate is too low they can invoke the exceptional circumstances clause. Would this be wholly covered by b too?

            Comment


            • #7
              Re: Is there REALLY a case against the banks ?

              I have heard today that EDIT are challenging under 5 of the UTCCR. Some more knowledgable peeps here may be able to glean some info from them?
              Last edited by Amethyst; 13th October 2014, 00:07:AM.

              Comment


              • #8
                Re: Is there REALLY a case against the banks ?

                lol think it may be the other way around.
                #staysafestayhome

                Any support I provide is offered without liability, if you are unsure please seek professional legal guidance.

                Received a Court Claim? Read >>>>> First Steps

                Comment


                • #9
                  Re: Is there REALLY a case against the banks ?

                  Originally posted by Amethyst View Post
                  lol think it may be the other way around.
                  ????

                  Comment


                  • #10
                    Re: Is there REALLY a case against the banks ?

                    I think Ame means that the CMC's are gleaning info and ways forward from us/other forums.....not us from them
                    Any opinions I give are my own. Any advice I give is without liability. If you are unsure, please seek qualified legal advice.

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                    Comment


                    • #11
                      Re: Is there REALLY a case against the banks ?

                      We all know the arguments we wish to use against the banks in the amended POC's but........are we confident we can stand in court and convince a Judge against the banks barristers?

                      We need to prepare each argument and be confident that it is applicable specifically to your case. You are the ones that are going to have to stand in court on the day and convince the Judge/Barrister so.... my thoughts on just one of the arguments.

                      Anti competitive behaviour.

                      The Claimant has suffered loss due to anti-competitive behaviour of the Defendant under Chapter 1 and / or Chapter 2 of the Competition Act. (i) Bank engages in price discrimination on the basis of property (ii) Bank (via its charging terms) causes overall price of account to be higher than in a competitive market.
                      The argument is not merely about price, it goes much deeper than this. I also think that the above paragraph is not entirely applicable and other areas of the Competition Act should be used, but which ones? We should look into it further.

                      There is no secret meeting between the CEO's fixing prices behind closed doors, this simply does not happen.

                      The banks operate in such a way as to make it so difficult to compare between PCA providers, products, charging structures and fees. How many of us have said

                      "They are all the same, it wouldn't make a difference who I banked with, they all charge pretty much the same and for the same things"

                      Because the average consumer cannot tell the difference, be it through complicated T&C's that are unintelligible, charging structures that are so complex that it would take a economics degree to understand or generally just lack of transparency and information.

                      • Consumers are hindered when trying to switch accounts,
                      • How many of us have tried to close an account but been unable to because there is an outstanding overdraft that the bank will not allow you to repay in affordable installments?
                      • Who has a loan or a mortgage or another product with their bank that can only be serviced via their current account with the same lender?

                      This in practice gives the consumer a feeling they have no choice, that as they are "all the same"and it is "too much aggro to change" or "they simply wont let me change without it creating more problems"?

                      This, is anti-competitive behaviour, not simply the pricing and this is what you need to be able to confidently argue in court.
                      Last edited by Tools; 5th February 2010, 19:21:PM.
                      Any opinions I give are my own. Any advice I give is without liability. If you are unsure, please seek qualified legal advice.

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                      Comment


                      • #12
                        Re: Is there REALLY a case against the banks ?

                        Maybe something from this section of the Act? (relevant points highlighted)

                        Competition Act 1998 (c. 41)

                        18 Abuse of dominant position


                        (1) Subject to section 19, any conduct on the part of one or more undertakings which amounts to the abuse of a dominant position in a market is prohibited if it may affect trade within the United Kingdom.
                        (2) Conduct may, in particular, constitute such an abuse if it consists in—
                        (a) directly or indirectly imposing unfair purchase or selling prices or other unfair trading conditions;
                        (b) limiting production, markets or technical development to the prejudice of consumers;
                        (c) applying dissimilar conditions to equivalent transactions with other trading parties, thereby placing them at a competitive disadvantage;
                        (d) making the conclusion of contracts subject to acceptance by the other parties of supplementary obligations which, by their nature or according to commercial usage, have no connection with the subject of the contracts.
                        (3) In this section—
                        • “dominant position” means a dominant position within the United Kingdom; and
                        • “the United Kingdom” means the United Kingdom or any part of it.

                        (4) The prohibition imposed by subsection (1) is referred to in this Act as “the Chapter II prohibition”.
                        Any opinions I give are my own. Any advice I give is without liability. If you are unsure, please seek qualified legal advice.

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                        • #13
                          Re: Is there REALLY a case against the banks ?

                          Hi guys, been offline for a while. Had too much work on and a bout of man flu. I got a note tho!

                          Anyway, as usual, I got a crackpot post to make. I'm pretty sure the whole theft angle had been ventured and found to be a dead end long long ago, I can't remember why now. I been reading about MPs and their expenses and, well maybe I'm confusing the similarity, but they're being charged under S.17 of the Theft Act 1968.

                          I'm really crap at the law side of things so can someone tell me why 17.1(b) couldn't apply to historic terms?

                          17.
                          False accounting.
                          — (1) Where a person dishonestly, with a view to gain for himself or another or with intent to cause loss to another,—
                          (a)
                          destroys, defaces, conceals or falsifies any account or any record or document made or required for any accounting purpose; or
                          (b)
                          in furnishing information for any purpose produces or makes use of any account, or any such record or document as aforesaid, which to his knowledge is or may be misleading, false or deceptive in a material particular;
                          he shall, on conviction on indictment, be liable to imprisonment for a term not exceeding seven years.
                          (2) For purposes of this section a person who makes or concurs in making in an account or other document an entry which is or may be misleading, false or deceptive in a material particular, or who omits or concurs in omitting a material particular from an account or other document, is to be treated as falsifying the account or document.

                          Comment


                          • #14
                            Re: Is there REALLY a case against the banks ?

                            Sorry Smasher but IMO it does not apply

                            2.“Dishonestly”
                            — (1) A person’s appropriation of property belonging to another is not to be regarded as dishonest—(a)
                            if he appropriates the property in the belief that he has in law the right to deprive the other of it, on behalf of himself or of a third person; or

                            (b)
                            if he appropriates the property in the belief that he would have the other’s consent if the other knew of the appropriation and the circumstances of it; or

                            (c)
                            (except where the property came to him as trustee or personal representative) if he appropriates the property in the belief that the person to whom the property belongs cannot be discovered by taking reasonable steps.

                            (2) A person’s appropriation of property belonging to another may be dishonest notwithstanding that he is willing to pay for the property.
                            It would not be regarded as dishonest as they believed they had a legal right to appropriate the "property" (money) and that they were acting with the owners consent (they agreed to the T&Cs
                            Any opinions I give are my own. Any advice I give is without liability. If you are unsure, please seek qualified legal advice.

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                            Comment


                            • #15
                              Re: Is there REALLY a case against the banks ?

                              Yeh, I'm just clutching at straws I know, but right now, I guess anything is worth half a look..

                              It does make me wonder though, how did they present their accounts? That £2.6bn that was rolling in every year, how was that explained on their books?

                              Comment

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