Quick and simple question.
If a court order ( CCJ) is taken out by the legal department of a large an organisation, and that organisation tells the defendant it prohibits them from doing something that it does not, ie misrepresents it, is that contempt of court ?
If a court order ( CCJ) is taken out by the legal department of a large an organisation, and that organisation tells the defendant it prohibits them from doing something that it does not, ie misrepresents it, is that contempt of court ?