Anyone know how this works ?
As I understand it if a Bank tries to take any benefit you are receiving (Child Benefit etc) to settle a debt, it is illegal and you can recover the past 6 years of any monies taken. The Act says these are inalienable. In other words benefits can not be used to settle charges, fees etc.
Now, I have a question for anybody who knows about this Act. Anyone who is receiving Benefits and who has to submit an I/E form to a Bank to agree payments of a debt from any net 'surplus' will normally include benefits within this I/E schedule. Does this Act say that benefits could be left out of the I/E schedule as effectively any surplus could be entirely made up of the benefits received and thus the Bank will be claiming that money as a repayment against the debt, a debt made up probably of Fees, Charges, interest as well as expenditure. ?
Observations anybody ?
As I understand it if a Bank tries to take any benefit you are receiving (Child Benefit etc) to settle a debt, it is illegal and you can recover the past 6 years of any monies taken. The Act says these are inalienable. In other words benefits can not be used to settle charges, fees etc.
Now, I have a question for anybody who knows about this Act. Anyone who is receiving Benefits and who has to submit an I/E form to a Bank to agree payments of a debt from any net 'surplus' will normally include benefits within this I/E schedule. Does this Act say that benefits could be left out of the I/E schedule as effectively any surplus could be entirely made up of the benefits received and thus the Bank will be claiming that money as a repayment against the debt, a debt made up probably of Fees, Charges, interest as well as expenditure. ?
Observations anybody ?
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