Hi, I'm new here but could do with some help please...
Our father died intestate many years ago. Modest estate but large family with a number of beneficiaries (all adult siblngs). The youngest adult sibling made a claim for further provision for right to continue to live in our fathers property (main asset).
Unfortunately whilst a number of the siblings sympathised with his condition and claim some siblings did not. After a very costly and complicated process the majority of the family finally agreed on a family consent order. The agreement was for me to buy out the other siblings and the property to be retained in my name and a life interest in the property to be given to the youngest sibling.
However, one sibling who had been the continuously antagonistic party throughout would not sign. Unfortunately due to that, the whole matter went to trial adding further costs. The court ruled for further provision and in favour of the consent order anyway. It was a comprehensive order and prevented any future claims for occurring etc etc etc. The antagonistic sibling didn't attend the trial and was served with further costs for causing the trial. The order was sealed and filed.
This was about 2 years ago.
Suddenly, I have now received a notice of application via the High Court from the antagonistic sibling. They have made an application in person to the high court without a legal representative involved. They are now asking to be put onto the deeds of the property, given access to the property and a room to live in the property as compensation from me?
There are lots of other irrelevant references that make little to no sense whatsoever both legally or common sense wise. He is now claiming his share/entitlement has been discriminated against. It's all rather leftfield to be honest.
I suspect that the share he received has been nulled by all the costs he has accumulated and he's been wrangling over costs with the various parties involved for the past 2 years. In other words he's probably now left with nothing after costs.
To be quite honest I'm not sure where to start on how to defend this claim on what is now my property?
The consent order that was sealed 2 years ago was pretty comprehensive and filed at the high court. From what I can see and what was understood the order prevents this type of claim or future claims from occurring.
Can anyone help please ?
Our father died intestate many years ago. Modest estate but large family with a number of beneficiaries (all adult siblngs). The youngest adult sibling made a claim for further provision for right to continue to live in our fathers property (main asset).
Unfortunately whilst a number of the siblings sympathised with his condition and claim some siblings did not. After a very costly and complicated process the majority of the family finally agreed on a family consent order. The agreement was for me to buy out the other siblings and the property to be retained in my name and a life interest in the property to be given to the youngest sibling.
However, one sibling who had been the continuously antagonistic party throughout would not sign. Unfortunately due to that, the whole matter went to trial adding further costs. The court ruled for further provision and in favour of the consent order anyway. It was a comprehensive order and prevented any future claims for occurring etc etc etc. The antagonistic sibling didn't attend the trial and was served with further costs for causing the trial. The order was sealed and filed.
This was about 2 years ago.
Suddenly, I have now received a notice of application via the High Court from the antagonistic sibling. They have made an application in person to the high court without a legal representative involved. They are now asking to be put onto the deeds of the property, given access to the property and a room to live in the property as compensation from me?
There are lots of other irrelevant references that make little to no sense whatsoever both legally or common sense wise. He is now claiming his share/entitlement has been discriminated against. It's all rather leftfield to be honest.
I suspect that the share he received has been nulled by all the costs he has accumulated and he's been wrangling over costs with the various parties involved for the past 2 years. In other words he's probably now left with nothing after costs.
To be quite honest I'm not sure where to start on how to defend this claim on what is now my property?
The consent order that was sealed 2 years ago was pretty comprehensive and filed at the high court. From what I can see and what was understood the order prevents this type of claim or future claims from occurring.
Can anyone help please ?
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