The will was written ten years before the death in 2023. Probate has been obtained. The house is dealt with. There are some specific bequests - dealt with. There are three residuary beneficiaries, spouse and two relatives, with the estate split equally between them. The spouse still lives in the marital home and "all furniture and household goods" have been left to them.
The deceased was a collector - and hoarder. His main collection was instructed to be sold and form the residuary estate, along with bank accounts, with the collectibles being worth far more than the money. So far so good.
Other collections are less valuable, but are not mentioned in the will. They have gone to auction, together with various other household items, DIY tools, electronic equipment and stuff from the garage / shed. All the proceeds have been paid into the account the executor has set up, but it is not specifically an Estate Account. As Executor I now have to decide which of those proceeds belong to the estate and which to the spouse.
Some items are obviously belonging to the spouse, who took the opportunityof the sale to dispose of them. But what about the clocks and watches and other collectibles? Do they all belong to the spouse, on the basis that they were not obliged to sell any of them?
Is this a moral question rather than a legal one?
Any thoughts welcome. Thank you.
The deceased was a collector - and hoarder. His main collection was instructed to be sold and form the residuary estate, along with bank accounts, with the collectibles being worth far more than the money. So far so good.
Other collections are less valuable, but are not mentioned in the will. They have gone to auction, together with various other household items, DIY tools, electronic equipment and stuff from the garage / shed. All the proceeds have been paid into the account the executor has set up, but it is not specifically an Estate Account. As Executor I now have to decide which of those proceeds belong to the estate and which to the spouse.
Some items are obviously belonging to the spouse, who took the opportunityof the sale to dispose of them. But what about the clocks and watches and other collectibles? Do they all belong to the spouse, on the basis that they were not obliged to sell any of them?
Is this a moral question rather than a legal one?
Any thoughts welcome. Thank you.
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