As I understand it, if a husband and wife have wills that leave all their assets to the surviving partner, all jointly held assets pass to the surviving spouse on the death of their husband / wife without having to obtain probate, so long as all their assets are jointly held. If the deceased had some assets in their sole name, such as savings accounts, shares, investments, I believe that means that probate must be obtained. Is that correct?
So, if the deceased jointly owned a house worth £500,000 and had £100,000 in assets in their sole name, does the probate application need to take into account their share of all the jointly held assets? If everything is passing to the surviving partner, might any inheritance tax become due following the first death?
So, if the deceased jointly owned a house worth £500,000 and had £100,000 in assets in their sole name, does the probate application need to take into account their share of all the jointly held assets? If everything is passing to the surviving partner, might any inheritance tax become due following the first death?
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