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My aunt recently passed away and we now have her will. Her property (house) has been left to my dad (or me if he'd been deceased), a few personal bits elsewhere, but the last point in the will states that 'the residue of my property' goes to Guide Dogs for the Blind, PDSA and a Kent hospital. The original solicitors no longer exist and the firm that took them over are now in effect the executors. However, the residue is the issue. Back in 1982 and indeed throughout her life, my Aunt assumed she and often told us she had no money. As it transpires, she has £100K plus in her current account/savings/investments etc. Is it now the case that this is the 'residue of her property' and this is then to be divided up between the 3 named charities? It is likely her intention back in 1982 was that perhaps they'd each get perhaps a few hundred pounds based on what she assumed she had then. She was very frugal and as far as we know hasn't given anything significant to these charities in the interim years. So I guess the question is - is the declared residue of my property' - the sale from the contents of her house? Would residue of her 'estate' be the same thing? Had it been a few thousand pounds, obviously that wouldn't be up for discussion, but £100K+ is obviously a life changing amount. Any thoughts/details of similar experiences much appreciated! Thank you.
My aunt recently passed away and we now have her will. Her property (house) has been left to my dad (or me if he'd been deceased), a few personal bits elsewhere, but the last point in the will states that 'the residue of my property' goes to Guide Dogs for the Blind, PDSA and a Kent hospital. The original solicitors no longer exist and the firm that took them over are now in effect the executors. However, the residue is the issue. Back in 1982 and indeed throughout her life, my Aunt assumed she and often told us she had no money. As it transpires, she has £100K plus in her current account/savings/investments etc. Is it now the case that this is the 'residue of her property' and this is then to be divided up between the 3 named charities? It is likely her intention back in 1982 was that perhaps they'd each get perhaps a few hundred pounds based on what she assumed she had then. She was very frugal and as far as we know hasn't given anything significant to these charities in the interim years. So I guess the question is - is the declared residue of my property' - the sale from the contents of her house? Would residue of her 'estate' be the same thing? Had it been a few thousand pounds, obviously that wouldn't be up for discussion, but £100K+ is obviously a life changing amount. Any thoughts/details of similar experiences much appreciated! Thank you.
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