For probate a deceased property is valued at figure being the average of two estate agents valuations and inheritance tax paid accordingly.
The property subsequently sells for more than the probate valuation and capital gains tax is payable on the difference less the annual exemption and selling costs.
The solicitor advises this CGT can be apportioned to the residuary beneficiaries before completion so that the capital gain is divided between them.
A day later the solicitor corrects himself saying this will not be possible because appropriation must take place before exchange of contracts not before completion of the sale. Subsequently CGT is paid to HMRC at the full 28% rate.
If the solicitor’s correction is right then should he have known this and submitted a memorandum of appropriation to each beneficiary before exchange of contracts? Further most of the beneficiaries would have made no capital gain in the tax year and were also basic rate tax payers where the rate would have been 18% even if payable. Thoughts?
The property subsequently sells for more than the probate valuation and capital gains tax is payable on the difference less the annual exemption and selling costs.
The solicitor advises this CGT can be apportioned to the residuary beneficiaries before completion so that the capital gain is divided between them.
A day later the solicitor corrects himself saying this will not be possible because appropriation must take place before exchange of contracts not before completion of the sale. Subsequently CGT is paid to HMRC at the full 28% rate.
If the solicitor’s correction is right then should he have known this and submitted a memorandum of appropriation to each beneficiary before exchange of contracts? Further most of the beneficiaries would have made no capital gain in the tax year and were also basic rate tax payers where the rate would have been 18% even if payable. Thoughts?
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