Before his untimely death earlier this year my 85 year old father had been the victim of elderly financial abuse at the hands of his son and was trying to seek restitution. The details and thread of how this crime unfolded as it was happening can be read under this link
http://forums.moneysavingexpert.com/showthread.php?t=4764044
which is where I sought & received a good deal of help and support as details of his awful & heart breaking journey gradually unfolded.
One of the many things that I have never been able to understand is why a telephone recording of my brother speaking to the bank posing as my dad to close down & receive shares of £20,000 was not treated as a crimiinal offence. It was a very long and involved conversation and was full of totally uneccessary lies even if my father had been agreeable to it taking place which dad fervently denied. The investigating police officer at the time said although they definitely know & can prove dad did not make the call they could not prove my father had not agreed to my brother making the call as people do this all the time.
Normally it is a straight forward process of going through a few security questions to allow someone to speak on a persons behalf but this was a totally different scenario. Please can anyone explain...after someone is actually proved to have posed as someone else to obtain money from a bank (with or without their permission) when does it become fraud or an offence?
Sadly all progress toward restitution automatically stopped when dad passed away as I don't think I have any rights to continue on his or even my own behalf but I really still need to understand some aspects of his case. My memories of dad are marred by recurring thoughts of the despair & injustice he went through x
http://forums.moneysavingexpert.com/showthread.php?t=4764044
which is where I sought & received a good deal of help and support as details of his awful & heart breaking journey gradually unfolded.
One of the many things that I have never been able to understand is why a telephone recording of my brother speaking to the bank posing as my dad to close down & receive shares of £20,000 was not treated as a crimiinal offence. It was a very long and involved conversation and was full of totally uneccessary lies even if my father had been agreeable to it taking place which dad fervently denied. The investigating police officer at the time said although they definitely know & can prove dad did not make the call they could not prove my father had not agreed to my brother making the call as people do this all the time.
Normally it is a straight forward process of going through a few security questions to allow someone to speak on a persons behalf but this was a totally different scenario. Please can anyone explain...after someone is actually proved to have posed as someone else to obtain money from a bank (with or without their permission) when does it become fraud or an offence?
Sadly all progress toward restitution automatically stopped when dad passed away as I don't think I have any rights to continue on his or even my own behalf but I really still need to understand some aspects of his case. My memories of dad are marred by recurring thoughts of the despair & injustice he went through x
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