Hi
I am an Executor for my late Father-in-Laws estate and I am trying to examin the options regarding a car that he obtained via a PCP agreement 3 years ago (at the age of 82).
Originally the company suggested that I surrender the car to them, they would sell and the estate would be liable for any difference between the sale proceeds and the outstanding agreement (including the final balloon payment). This is nearly £6K and there is no way that a three year old Fiat Panda would achieve this much at sale (current value from a car buying site around £3.7K)
There are no family members who would wish to buy the car from the estate as it is not worth the amount still owed.
I have been reading a number of threads regarding voluntary termination and sent the recommended letter to the finance company, however have just received a response to say that only the debtor can trigger the voluntary termination and nobody else. Can this be right? I cant understand how the executors (or even the estate) should be able to negotiate a more costly end to the agreement than the original debtor given that he has passed away.
Are they just trying to be difficult to avoid the loss themselves or is this correct? All advice gratefully received. Many thanks
I am an Executor for my late Father-in-Laws estate and I am trying to examin the options regarding a car that he obtained via a PCP agreement 3 years ago (at the age of 82).
Originally the company suggested that I surrender the car to them, they would sell and the estate would be liable for any difference between the sale proceeds and the outstanding agreement (including the final balloon payment). This is nearly £6K and there is no way that a three year old Fiat Panda would achieve this much at sale (current value from a car buying site around £3.7K)
There are no family members who would wish to buy the car from the estate as it is not worth the amount still owed.
I have been reading a number of threads regarding voluntary termination and sent the recommended letter to the finance company, however have just received a response to say that only the debtor can trigger the voluntary termination and nobody else. Can this be right? I cant understand how the executors (or even the estate) should be able to negotiate a more costly end to the agreement than the original debtor given that he has passed away.
Are they just trying to be difficult to avoid the loss themselves or is this correct? All advice gratefully received. Many thanks
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