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Hi all
Good morning! I've been following the threads on here regarding the issue of mileage charged at point of VT. I have now handed back my car under VT, and face no further bills for condition or wear and tear. The collection agent was complimentary as to the condition of the vehicle.I do however have a bill of c£900 for excess mileage.
As I understand it, the challenge a lot of people face with BMW is that they will not raise court proceedings for mileage rather they will continually erode credit score data through missed payment markers. Therefore, my question is whether or not there is any merit in paying the outstanding bill in total now and then taking retrospective legal action to claim the money back? That way, upholding the integrity of my underlying credit score without the hassle of a drawn out debate with BMW which as I understand from this forum doesn't tend to move to that next court stage.
My understanding of the courts through other personal cases that I have been involved in (against Porsche and against a parking ticket agency) is that there has to be financial loss in the first instance (which would be the bill for mileage) and there has to have been attempted resolution (which I think is inferred through the weight of evidence of BMW not being being willing to negotiate on this point). Therefore, I'd be interested in anyones views on this, slightly different approach of paying and then counter claiming?
Many thanks in anticipation
Paxx
Good morning! I've been following the threads on here regarding the issue of mileage charged at point of VT. I have now handed back my car under VT, and face no further bills for condition or wear and tear. The collection agent was complimentary as to the condition of the vehicle.I do however have a bill of c£900 for excess mileage.
As I understand it, the challenge a lot of people face with BMW is that they will not raise court proceedings for mileage rather they will continually erode credit score data through missed payment markers. Therefore, my question is whether or not there is any merit in paying the outstanding bill in total now and then taking retrospective legal action to claim the money back? That way, upholding the integrity of my underlying credit score without the hassle of a drawn out debate with BMW which as I understand from this forum doesn't tend to move to that next court stage.
My understanding of the courts through other personal cases that I have been involved in (against Porsche and against a parking ticket agency) is that there has to be financial loss in the first instance (which would be the bill for mileage) and there has to have been attempted resolution (which I think is inferred through the weight of evidence of BMW not being being willing to negotiate on this point). Therefore, I'd be interested in anyones views on this, slightly different approach of paying and then counter claiming?
Many thanks in anticipation
Paxx
