I am by no means legally minded but something struck me last night about the VT issue of regarding excess mileage as not meeting reasonable condition and wondered if anyone had ever argued this point.
Since the finance companies use the BVRLA documents to determine reasonable condition then is it possible to argue that since the document does not include mileage as an indicator of condition then excess mileage should not be classed as affecting this?
To my knowledge the CAP guidelines that [MENTION=71570]R0b[/MENTION] suggests are more applicable also exclude mileage as an indicator.
Interested in any thought on this one.
Since the finance companies use the BVRLA documents to determine reasonable condition then is it possible to argue that since the document does not include mileage as an indicator of condition then excess mileage should not be classed as affecting this?
To my knowledge the CAP guidelines that [MENTION=71570]R0b[/MENTION] suggests are more applicable also exclude mileage as an indicator.
Interested in any thought on this one.
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