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A relative of mine has received a parking charge for, "unauthorised parking". The signs state, "no parking unless vehicle has been registered with the Hotel Reception (Hotel Guests Only)". The car was not registered with the hotel reception and neither the driver nor keeper were hotel guests. The PPC then obtained the Keeper's details from the DVLA and began lettering and DRPing - although we only have one letter because she moved during, SAR is underway to obtain the missing letters.
My question though is specifically about breach of data protection. If I'm understanding correctly, in this instance there could never be a contract because parking was prohibited. Nothing was offered by the parking company. Therefore, there could never have been a contractual charge for them to chase and thus no cause to obtain my relative's details.
Another twist is that there are two PPC trading names on the sign but only one set of contact details - not the contact details of the PPC that sent the charge.
Is my understanding correct and could my relative sue the PPC first for the breach? In theory at least, even if the chance would be slim in practice.
Thanks in advance.
Edit: the sign https://imgbb.com/nPpBPFv
My question though is specifically about breach of data protection. If I'm understanding correctly, in this instance there could never be a contract because parking was prohibited. Nothing was offered by the parking company. Therefore, there could never have been a contractual charge for them to chase and thus no cause to obtain my relative's details.
Another twist is that there are two PPC trading names on the sign but only one set of contact details - not the contact details of the PPC that sent the charge.
Is my understanding correct and could my relative sue the PPC first for the breach? In theory at least, even if the chance would be slim in practice.
Thanks in advance.
Edit: the sign https://imgbb.com/nPpBPFv
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