In brief the situation is:
In the first instance I am aware that the council can decide whatever rules they like in respect of unoccupied property. There are a number of guidelines on their site - I say guidelines because they use the word 'may'. The person I have been speaking to claims that the house is liable to tax as it was previously let, but I can't find anything anywhere that says that.
That said, I'd imagine that the council have to pass/agree their rules somehow? Is that the case?
If so what is it I have to ask them for in particular? I don't just want to ask them for 'proof' as they may well be selective in what they tell me.
If not, can someone enlighten me as to how they determine these rules and the legislation governing how they should make them?
Much thanks in advance. And if I do get some help I promise to post the outcome!!
- My father house went into a nursing home and his house was let
- He died, but we kept the house on let
- Just prior to probate being granted we took the house off the rental market and put it up for sale.
- The council insist we are liable for Council Tax; probate was granted last month
In the first instance I am aware that the council can decide whatever rules they like in respect of unoccupied property. There are a number of guidelines on their site - I say guidelines because they use the word 'may'. The person I have been speaking to claims that the house is liable to tax as it was previously let, but I can't find anything anywhere that says that.
That said, I'd imagine that the council have to pass/agree their rules somehow? Is that the case?
If so what is it I have to ask them for in particular? I don't just want to ask them for 'proof' as they may well be selective in what they tell me.
If not, can someone enlighten me as to how they determine these rules and the legislation governing how they should make them?
Much thanks in advance. And if I do get some help I promise to post the outcome!!
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