My father has huge Council Tax debts which apparently go back many years.
When I ask him how this situation has arisen, he denies that he has any debts. He says he has "treated" the council to payments (not the amounts demanded, but what he considers appropriate), which he has stated as being "full and final" and "not offers". Because he has (allegedly) received receipts for these payments, he believes that he has fulfilled his obligations, and therefore has no debt.
Can anyone tell me whether there is any legal validity for this position, or is he just deluded?
Thanks
When I ask him how this situation has arisen, he denies that he has any debts. He says he has "treated" the council to payments (not the amounts demanded, but what he considers appropriate), which he has stated as being "full and final" and "not offers". Because he has (allegedly) received receipts for these payments, he believes that he has fulfilled his obligations, and therefore has no debt.
Can anyone tell me whether there is any legal validity for this position, or is he just deluded?
Thanks
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